71st BPSC Prelims Exam Questions 2025 & Solution

71st BPSC Prelims Exam Questions 2025

𝟏. What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
(A) To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas.
(B) To provide vocational training to teachers at senior-secondary level.
(C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
(D) More than one of the above

Mission Daksh in Bihar is specifically designed to provide personalized mentoring, remedial teaching, and structured support to students who are falling behind in their learning outcomes. The objective is to ensure that such students achieve grade-level competencies, particularly in foundational skills like literacy and numeracy. It is not about enrollment expansion or teacher vocational training. Correct Answer is (C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.

𝟐. Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory enablers for support
(C) International market expansion schemes
(D) More than one of the above

The YUVA framework under Bihar Startup Policy 2022 focuses on: Y: Youth – nurturing entrepreneurial talent. U: Uniform policy and support ecosystem. V: Vibrancy – promoting innovation and education-linked entrepreneurship. A: Assistance – financial and non-financial support, regulatory ease. “International market expansion schemes” is not included as a formal component under this framework. Correct Answer is (C) International market expansion schemes

𝟑. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24?
(A) Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar’s GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%.
(C) The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above.

(A) is incorrect → Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices grew by around 14.5% in 2023-24 compared to the previous year. (B) is correct → The tertiary sector share in GSVA (constant prices) was 58.6% in 2023-24, showing Bihar’s service-sector dominance. (C) is correct → GFCF was 4.6% of GSDP in 2023-24, indicating relatively low investment compared to national levels. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above

𝟒. Consider the following statements:

1) The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041.

2) Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041.

3) The elderly population (60 + years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) More than one of the above

(1) Correct → The young population share (0–19 years) is projected to decline sharply by 2041 due to fertility transition. (2) Correct → Bihar’s demographic dividend will peak around 2041, later than many other states because of its relatively young population base. (3) Incorrect → While the elderly population in Bihar will rise, it will increase less sharply compared to the all-India average (since Bihar remains younger demographically for longer) Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 2 are correct

𝟓. According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs.
(B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.
(C) Majority of women were engaged in secondary sector
(D) More than one of the above

PLFS data shows that women in Bihar are overwhelmingly engaged in self-employment, mostly in household enterprises,unpaid work, or agricultural activities. Formal, regular wage jobs (A) are extremely limited among women. Secondary sector (C) also employs very few women in Bihar Correct Answer is (B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.

𝟔. The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
(A) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(B) Staff Selection Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the people

Article 98 of the Constitution provides for a Secretariat of each House of Parliament. Recruitment of its staff is made by the President after consultation with the Speaker (for Lok Sabha) and the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha). Correct Answer is (D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People.

𝟕. Attorney General of India:
(A) Is not entitled of audience except the Supreme Court
(B) Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament
(C) He gives advice to the President on legal matters
(D) Is a whole time counsel for the government

The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the highest law officer of the country (Article 76). (A) is wrong → He has the right of audience in all courts in India. (B) is wrong → He can participate in parliamentary proceedings, but cannot vote. (C) is correct → His primary duty is to advise the President on legal matters and perform assigned functions. (D) is wrong → He is not a whole-time government servant; he can practice privately with restrictions. Correct Answer is (C) He gives advice to the President on legal matters.

𝟖. Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list?

1) Protection of wildlife

2) Income on Agriculture

3) Tax on Electricity consumption or sale

4) Price control

Out of these:
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) Only 4 is correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correet
(D) Only 2 is correct

Protection of wildlife → Concurrent List (both Centre & States legislate). Income on agriculture → State List (Union cannot tax agricultural income). Tax on electricity consumption or sale → State List. Price control → Concurrent List Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 4 are correct.

𝟗. Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?

1) Organization of Village Panchayats

2) Common Civil Code

3) Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas

4) Right to work

(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) Only 2
(D) 1 and 3

Gandhian Principles (Art. 40, 43, 46, etc.) focus on Panchayati Raj, cottage industries, prohibition, education, and village economy. (1) Organization of Panchayats → Gandhian. (2) Uniform Civil Code (Art. 44) → Liberal/Intellectual principle, not Gandhian. (3) Promotion of cottage industry → Gandhian. (4) Right to work → Socialist principle. Correct Answer is (B) 2 and 4.

𝟏𝟎. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Allocation of seats in the council of state — 4th schedule
(B) Administration of scheduled areas —6th schedule
(C) Forms of oath — 3rd schedule
(D) Union List — 7th schedule

4th Schedule → Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha ✔️ 5th Schedule → Administration of Scheduled Areas & Tribes ✔️ 6th Schedule → Autonomous councils in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura. 3rd Schedule → Oaths ✔️ 7th Schedule → Union/State/Concurrent Lists. Correct Answer is (B) Administration of scheduled areas —6th schedule.

𝟏𝟏. Consider the following statements about Central Government:
1) Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.
2) Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Out of these:
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Formation of Ministries/Departments is not the PM’s independent decision with Cabinet Secretary → It is done by the President on PM’s advice. So (1) is wrong. Allocation of portfolios is indeed done by President on advice of PM → (2) is correct. Correct Answer is (B) Only 2 is correct.

𝟏𝟐. What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
(A) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
(B) It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court also
(C) Advocate General has right to vote
(D) Validity of proceedings shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity

Correct → As per Article 210, State Legislature business can be in official language, Hindi, or English. Wrong → Legislature cannot discuss conduct of judges except in case of impeachment. Wrong → Advocate General can participate but cannot vote. Wrong → Validity of proceedings cannot be questioned for irregularities (Art. 212) Correct Answer is (A) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.

𝟏𝟑. The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that :
1) The interest of the general public is safeguarded
2) Prevailing social value and also social needs are not bar
3) Directive principles can be bypassed
4) Collective good is not greater
Out of these:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 4 is correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) Only 1 is correct

Correct →Restrictions must be reasonable and balance individual rights vs. social interest. (1) True → Interest of general public is main criterion. (2) True → Reasonableness must consider social values and needs. (3) False → Directive Principles are not to be bypassed; they help in interpretation. (4) False → Collective good is often greater than individual interest. Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 2 are correct.

𝟏𝟒. Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament by act
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Union Cabinet

Article 280: Finance Commission is constituted by President every 5 years. Qualifications of members are determined by Parliament by law. Correct Answer is (B) Parliament by act.

𝟏𝟓. Consider the following statements:
1) The summoning of the House means convocation
2) Prorogation ends a session
3) Dissolution terminates a House
4) Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone
Out of these which is not true?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) Only 4

(1) Correct → Summoning = calling the House. (2) Correct → Prorogation ends a session. (3) Correct → Dissolution ends Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha). (4) Wrong → Prorogation is done by President (for Parliament) or Governor (for State), not leader of the House. Correct Answer is (D) Only 4.

𝟏𝟔. Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Chairman of District Council
(C) Chairman of Block Committee
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) created a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Article 243-I: A State Finance Commission, constituted by the Governor every 5 years, reviews the financial position of Panchayats and recommends principles for sharing revenues between State and Panchayats. Neither CM, nor District Council, nor Block Committee has this constitutional authority.. Correct Answer is (D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor.

𝟏𝟕. The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:
1) Enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries
2) Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production
Out of these :
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Mission) is aimed at boosting domestic manufacturing, exports, and resilience of industries. It also provides Production Linked Incentives (PLI) to attract foreign investment into domestic production. Correct Answer is (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct.

𝟏𝟖. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(A) To increase agriculture production
(B) To increase people’s political awareness
(C) To increase employment
(D) To enable people to participate in development administration

The Panchayati Raj system was introduced to promote grassroots democracy. It enables people to directly participate in decision-making and development administration, not just in elections. Increasing agriculture or employment are indirect outcomes, but not the main constitutional purpose. Correct Answer is (D) To enable people to participate in development administration.

𝟏𝟗. What is true about Censure Motion?
(A) It is not different from No-confidence motion
(B) It is not mandatory to mention the reasons in this motion
(C) It is different from the No-confidence motion
(D) Permission of the House is not essential to present it

Censure Motion:- A motion to disapprove a policy or action of the Government. It is different from a No-confidence Motion because it targets a specific policy/minister, not the entire Council of Ministers. In a censure motion, reasons must be mentioned, unlike a no-confidence motion. Hence, the correct feature is that it is different from no-confidence motion. Correct Answer is (C) It is different from the No-confidence motion.

𝟐𝟎. Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
(A) Dispute between Centre and State
(B) Protection of fundamental rights
(C) Dispute among States
(D) Protection from the violation of the constitution

Centre–State disputes → Only Supreme Court (Original jurisdiction). Dispute among States → Only Supreme Court. Violation of Constitution (other than FRs) → Generally Supreme Court (e.g., Art. 131). Protection of Fundamental Rights → Both Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Court (Art. 226). Correct Answer is (B) Protection of fundamental rights.

𝟐𝟏. Which Indian leader for the first time used the ‘safety-valve theory’ to attack the Moderates in the Congress?
(A) Bipin Chandra Pal
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

The Safety-valve theory suggested that the Indian National Congress was formed by the British (esp. Hume) as a “safety-valve” to let off nationalist steam and prevent revolution. This idea was popularized by Lala Lajpat Rai, who accused the Moderates of being too soft and serving as a controlled outlet. Tilak and Pal opposed moderates strongly, but the exact phrase “safety-valve” was first used by Lala Lajpat Rai. Correct Answer is (C) Lala Lajpat Rai.

𝟐𝟐. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Wavell

On 23rd December 1912, during the state entry of Lord Hardinge (Viceroy 1910–1916) into Delhi, a bomb was thrown at him by Indian revolutionaries (Rashbehari Bose & Basanta Kumar Biswas were involved). Hardinge was injured but survived; this incident became a major revolutionary event. Correct Answer is (B) Lord Hardinge.

𝟐𝟑. Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?
(A) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(B) Har Dayal
(C) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
(D) Shyamji Krishna Verma

Lala Har Dayal, an Indian nationalist and revolutionary, went to the USA and became a Professor of Indian Philosophy at Stanford University (California) in 1911. Later, he played a leading role in organizing the Ghadar Party to mobilize Indians abroad for independence. Other names (Sohan Singh Bhakna, Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Shyamji Krishna Verma) were active revolutionaries, but not linked with this post. Correct Answer is (B) Har Dayal.

𝟐𝟒. Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?
(A) Dunlop Smith
(B) William Morris
(C) Minto
(D) Theodore Beck

The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College, founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, later became Aligarh Muslim University. Theodore Beck (Principal 1883–1899) played a major role in promoting separatist and communal tendencies among Muslims, aligning with colonial policies of “divide and rule.” Dunlop Smith and Morris were officials but not linked with this role; Lord Minto came later (early 20th century).. Correct Answer is (D) Theodore Beck.

𝟐𝟓. The Young India’, a Nationalist paper, was started by
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Maulana abul kalam azad

Young India was a nationalist weekly paper associated with Mahatma Gandhi, started in 1919. Gandhi used it to spread ideas of Satyagraha, Non-cooperation, Hindu–Muslim unity, and self-reliance. Annie Besant had started New India. Tilak was linked with Kesari and Mahratta. Abul Kalam Azad had started Al-Hilal. Correct Answer is (C) Mahatma Gandhi.

𝟐𝟔. Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?
(A) Welby Commission
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) Cabinet Mission

Simon Commission (1927) was appointed to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919. It had all British members (no Indian representation), which led to massive protests across India. This united Congress, Muslim League, and other political groups against it → “Simon Go Back” movement. Welby Commission (finance), Cripps Mission (1942), and Cabinet Mission (1946) did include Indians in varying forms. Correct Answer is (B) Simon Commission.

𝟐𝟕. Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, ‘Chalo Delhi’?
(A) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Shah Nawaz Khan
(C) Mohan Singh
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose

The Indian National Army (INA) was initially formed by Mohan Singh with Japanese support, later reorganized by Rash Behari Bose. But it was Subhash Chandra Bose who took full command in 1943, renamed it the Azad Hind Fauj, and gave the stirring slogan “Chalo Delhi”. Shah Nawaz Khan was an INA commander but not the originator of the cry. Correct Answer is (D) Subhash Chandra Bose.

𝟐𝟖. “We shall either free India or die in the attempt” who said it?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) V.D. Savarkar

This line was spoken by Mahatma Gandhi on 8th August 1942, during the launch of the Quit India Movement. It reflected his call for “Do or Die”, urging Indians to either achieve complete independence or sacrifice in the struggle. Nehru and Azad were leaders in the movement, but the specific words are attributed to Gandhi.. Correct Answer is (C) Mahatma Gandhi.

𝟐𝟗. Who raised the cry “Divide and Quit”?
(A) M.A. Ansari
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) M.A. Jinnah
(D) Muhammad Iqbal

In 1942, while Congress gave the slogan “Quit India,” the Muslim League under M.A. Jinnah gave the counter-slogan “Divide and Quit”, demanding partition before the British left. This showed the League’s insistence on creating Pakistan. Nehru, Ansari, and Iqbal never used this phrase. Correct Answer is (C) M.A. Jinnah.

𝟑𝟎. Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions – India and Pakistan?
(A) Govt. of India Act, 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above

The legal instrument that formally created two separate dominions — India and Pakistan — and set the date for transfer of authority was the Indian Independence Act, 1947. The Act (passed by the UK Parliament) provided for the partition of British India into two dominions, dealt with princely states and with division of assets, and fixed the dates for British withdrawal. Earlier Government of India Acts (1919, 1935) expanded provincial autonomy and reformed administration but did not provide for partition into two independent dominions. Correct Answer is (C) Indian Independence Act, 1947.

𝟑𝟏. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Annie Besant
(D) M.A.Ansari

The legal instrument that formally created two separate dominions — India and Pakistan — and set the date for transfer of authority was the Indian Independence Act, 1947. The Act (passed by the UK Parliament) provided for the partition of British India into two dominions, dealt with princely states and with division of assets, and fixed the dates for British withdrawal. Earlier Government of India Acts (1919, 1935) expanded provincial autonomy and reformed administration but did not provide for partition into two independent dominions. Correct Answer is (C) Annie Besant.

𝟑𝟐. Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between:
(A) Indian Government and Gandhiji
(B) Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
(C) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
(D) Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh

When Gandhi conducted the Champaran enquiry (1917), the colonial administration — confronted by the evidence Gandhi had gathered — decided to appoint a Government (Lieutenant-Governor’s) Committee of Inquiry to examine agrarian conditions in Champaran. The government invited Gandhi to serve on that committee, and he accepted; thus the committee was constituted by the government with Gandhi’s agreement to participate. The enquiry later led to the Champaran Agrarian Act (1918) and concrete relief measures for the ryots. In short, the Champaran Agrarian/Inquiry Committee was appointed by the provincial authorities and Gandhi agreed to serve on it — i.e., it was appointed with Gandhi’s concurrence. (Indian Culture). Correct Answer is (A) Indian Government and Gandhiji.

𝟑𝟑. Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
(A) Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(C) Sahajanand Saraswati
(D) Baba Ram Chandra

The organised Kisan (peasant) movement in Bihar in the late 1920s and 1930s was built around the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha, founded in 1929. The most prominent leader associated with initiating the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar and later with the All-India Kisan Sabha (formed 1936) was Swami (Shri) Sahajanand Saraswati. He mobilised tenant-farmers against zamindari oppression and was the first president of the All-India Kisan Sabha; historiography of peasant movements in India identifies Sahajanand as the principal Bihar Kisan leader. Correct Answer is (C) Sahajanand Saraswati.

𝟑𝟒. Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?
(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari
(B) Ram Narain of Bikrampur
(C) Satyandra of Gorakhari
(D) None of the above

Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari as the person murdered while hoisting the national flag within the jurisdiction of Bikram Police Station. Correct Answer is (A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari.

𝟑𝟓. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
(A) Anurag Narayan Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishna Singh
(D) None of the above

Shri Krishna Sinha (Sri Babu) headed Bihar’s first Congress provincial government. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, he became Premier after the 1937 elections, served until the 1939 wartime resignations, resumed leadership post-war, and on independence became Bihar’s first Chief Minister Correct Answer is (C) Shri Krishna Singh.

𝟑𝟔. Match List I with List II

List-I Places in Ancient India	List-II Presently in which State
a) Karnasuvarna	1) Maharashtra
b) Pragjyotish	2) Gujarat
c) Girnar	3) West Bengal
d) Pratishthan	4) Assam

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	a	b	c	d
(A)	4	3	1	2
(B)	3	2	4	1
(C)	3	4	2	1
(D)	4	2	1	3

Karnasuvarna → The capital of King Shashanka (7th century), located in present-day Murshidabad district, West Bengal. Pragjyotish → Ancient name of region corresponding to modern Assam. Girnar → A mountain in present-day Gujarat, famous for Ashokan inscriptions and Junagadh rock edict. Pratishthan (Paithan) → Capital of the Satavahanas, in present-day Maharashtra Correct Answer is (C) a → 3, b → 4, c → 2, d → 1

𝟑𝟕. Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?
(A) Ghosha
(B) Apala
(C) Gargi
(D) Vishvavara

Ghosha, Apala, Vishvavara → Female seers (rishikas) of Rigveda, credited with hymns. Gargi → A woman philosopher of later Vedic age, mentioned in Brihadaranyaka Upanishad (not Rigvedic). Correct Answer is (C) Gargi.

𝟑𝟖. Match List I with List II

List-I Event/Place	List-II Connected with Person
a) Chola Gangam Lake	1) Chandragupta Maurya
b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra	2) Harshavardhan
c) Assembly at Prayag	3) Rajendra I
d) Sudarshan Lake	4) Ashoka

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

	a	b	c	d
(A)	3	4	2	1
(B)	3	4	1	2
(C)	1	4	2	3
(D)	2	3	1	4

Chola Gangam Lake → Built by Rajendra I (Chola ruler, after conquest of Ganga region). Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra → By Ashoka to propagate Dhamma. Assembly at Prayag → Great religious assembly organized by Harshavardhana. Sudarshan Lake → Originally Mauryan (Chandragupta), later repaired by Rudradaman, but associated with Chandragupta Maurya.. Correct Answer is (A) 3 4 2 1.

𝟑𝟗. Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Bahlol Lodi
(C) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(D) Balban

Alauddin Khilji → 1296–1316 (20 years). Bahlol Lodi → 1451–1489 (38 years). Muhammad bin Tughluq → 1325–1351 (26 years). Balban → 1266–1287 (21 years). Thus, Bahlol Lodi ruled the longest (38 years). Correct Answer is (B) Bahlol Lodi.

𝟒𝟎. Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India:
1) Shunga
2) Maurya
3) Kushana
4) Kanva
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
(A) 2-1-4-3
(B) 2-3-1-4
(C) 1-2-3-4
(D) 2-1-3-4

Maurya (322–185 BCE) → First. Shunga (185–73 BCE) → After Mauryas. Kanva (73–28 BCE) → After Shungas. Kushana (1st–3rd century CE) → Later. Correct order: Maurya → Shunga → Kanva → Kushana Correct Answer is (A) 2-1-4-3.

𝟒𝟏. Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?
(A) Geetavali
(B) Sahitya Lahari
(C) Vinay Patrika
(D) Kavitawali

Geetavali, Vinay Patrika, Kavitawali → Works of Tulsidas. Sahitya Lahari → Not authored by Tulsidas (different writer). Correct Answer is (B) Sahitya Lahari.

𝟒𝟐. Match List I with List II

List-I Building	List-II Built by
a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque	1) Qutb ud-Din Aibak
b) Half Din Ka Jhopra	2) Harshavardhan
c) Allahabad Fort	3) Akbar
d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum	4) Babar

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 4 3 2

Kabuli Bagh Mosque (Panipat) → Built by Babur after First Battle of Panipat (1526). Adhai Din Ka Jhopra (Ajmer) → Built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak (converted from Sanskrit college). Allahabad Fort → Constructed by Akbar (1583). Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum (Agra) → Built by Nur Jahan for her father Mirza Ghiyas Beg during Jahangir’s reign. Correct Answer is (B) 4 1 3 2.

𝟒𝟑. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Person Associated with
(A) James Augustus Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle
(B) Ramaswamy Nicker — Justice Party
(C) Dayananda Saraswati — Satyarth Prakash
(D) Jyotirao Phule — Satyashodhak Samaj

James Augustus Hicky → Known as the founder of India’s first newspaper Hicky’s Bengal Gazette (1780), not Calcutta Chronicle. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) → Associated with Justice Party and later Self-Respect Movement. Dayananda Saraswati → Authored Satyarth Prakash (1875). Jyotirao Phule → Founded Satyashodhak Samaj (1873). Thus, the incorrect match is Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle. Correct Answer is (A) James Augustus Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle.

𝟒𝟒. Match List I with List II

List-I Father	List-II Son
a) Babar	1) Salim
b) Akbar	2) Khusrau
c) Shah Jahan	3) Kamran
d) Jahangir	4) Murad

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1

Babar → Father of Humayun and Kamran → match with Kamran (3). Akbar → Father of Salim (later Jahangir) → match with Salim (1). Shah Jahan → Father of Dara Shukoh, Aurangzeb, Shah Shuja, Murad → match with Murad (4). Jahangir (Salim) → Father of Khusrau → match with Khusrau (2). Correct Answer is (C) 3 1 4 2.

𝟒𝟓. Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?
(A) First
(B) Third
(C) Second
(D) Fourth

First Buddhist Council (483 BCE) → At Rajgriha (Rajgir, Bihar). Second Council (383 BCE) → At Vaishali (Bihar). Third Council (c. 250 BCE) → At Pataliputra (Patna, Bihar). Fourth Council (72 CE, Kanishka) → At Kundalvana, Kashmir. So, the Fourth Council was not in Bihar. Correct Answer is (D) Fourth.

𝟒𝟔. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?
1) He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D.
2) He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D.
3) On October 21st 1943 A.D. he constituted the Provincial Government of India in Singapore.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

Tripuri session of INC (1939, not 1938) → Bose was elected Congress President at Haripura (1938) and again at Tripuri (1939). So, statement 1 is partly wrong (year mentioned is 1938, but session was 1939). He escaped from house arrest in January 1941, disguised and reached abroad → Correct. On 21 October 1943, he proclaimed the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind) in Singapore → Correct. Correct Answer is (C) Only 2 and 3.

𝟒𝟕. Who among the following was not an Acharya in The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Sheelbhadra
(C) Kautilya
(D) Shantirakshit

Nagarjuna → Renowned Buddhist philosopher, associated with Mahayana, linked to Nalanda. Sheelbhadra → Buddhist teacher of Nalanda. Shantirakshit → Eminent Buddhist scholar of Nalanda, later invited to Tibet. Kautilya (Chanakya) → Ancient Mauryan minister, long before Nalanda (which was established in 5th century CE). He was not connected with Nalanda. Correct Answer is (C) Kautilya.

𝟒𝟖. Consider the following events of Modern Indian History –
1) Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
2) Treaty of Salbai
3) Battle of Wandiwash
4) Death of Tipu Sultan
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(A) 2-3-4-1
(B) 2-4-1-3
(C) 3-1-2-4
(D) 3-2-1-4

Battle of Wandiwash (1760) – English defeated French. Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar (1775) – By Supreme Court under Warren Hastings. Treaty of Salbai (1782) – Between British and Marathas. Death of Tipu Sultan (1799) – Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. Correct order → 3 (1760), 1 (1775), 2 (1782), 4 (1799) Correct Answer is (C) 3-1-2-4.

𝟒𝟗. Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?
(A) Bihar Bandhu
(B) Akhbar-E-Bihar
(C) Patna Harkara
(D) Bihar Herald

Language: English Place of Publication: Patna (Bihar) Period: 1854 onwards (mid-19th century) Nature: A weekly newspaper Significance: One of the earliest English newspapers of Bihar, started before the first Hindi newspaper Bihar Bandhu (1872). Reflected the growing role of Patna as a regional hub during colonial times. It focused on local administration, British policies, and socio-political developments of the Bengal Presidency (to which Bihar then belonged). Served as a medium for educated Indians and colonial officials in Bihar. ✅ Exam Note: Patna Harkara (1854, English) → one of the earliest newspapers in Bihar. Bihar Bandhu (1872, Hindi, by Pt. Shiv Prasad) → first Hindi newspaper from Bihar. The Bihar Herald was an English weekly newspaper published from Patna in 1873 by Sachidanand Sinha from Patna. It was founded and edited by Sachidanand Sinha, who later became a prominent nationalist, lawyer, and the first President of the Constituent Assembly of India. The newspaper served as an important medium to spread nationalist ideas, political awareness, and criticism of British policies in Bihar during the late 19th century. Bihar Bandhu → First newspaper published in Bihar (1872) from Patna, started by Girishchandra Ghosh. Correct Answer is (C) Patna Harkara.

𝟓𝟎. Match List I with List II

List-I Event/Organisation	List-II Related Person
a) Champaran Satyagrah	1) Jayaprakash Narayan
b) Azad Dasta	2) Shyam Narayan Singh
c) Individual Satyagrah in Bihar 1940	3) Sahajanand
d) Kisan Sabha Bihar	4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3

Champaran Satyagraha (1917): Gandhi’s first satyagraha in India, but Dr. Rajendra Prasad actively supported and organized it in Bihar → (a → 4). Azad Dasta: During the Quit India Movement (1942), a militant group called Azad Dasta was formed in Bihar under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan (JP). So this must be matched with JP, not Shyam Narayan Singh → (b → 1). Individual Satyagraha (1940 in Bihar): In Bihar, Shyam Narayan Singh is especially noted as the first individual satyagrahi → (c → 2). Kisan Sabha (Bihar): Founded in 1929 under Sahajanand Saraswati, a peasant leader → (d → 3). 👉 Correct matching becomes: a – 4, b – 1, c – 2, d – 3. Correct Answer is (D) 4 1 2 3.

𝟓𝟏. pH value of 0.1NHCl solution is approximately:
(A) 1.0
(B) 10
(C) 11.0
(D) 2.0

pH value of 0.1N HCl solution HCl is a strong acid, so it ionizes completely. Normality = Molarity for monoprotic acids like HCl. pH = –log[H⁺] = –log(0.1) = 1. Ans.. Correct Answer is (A) 1.0.

𝟓𝟐. Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
(A) Europium dopped strontium aluminate
(B) Barium sulphate dopped copper carbonate
(C) Copper Sulphide dopped zinc oxide
(D) Boron oxide dopped copper sulphate

Night glowing pigment The most common long-lasting phosphorescent material is Europium-doped strontium aluminate. It absorbs light energy and releases it slowly, producing glow in the dark. Correct Answer is (A) Europium doped strontium aluminate SrAl₂O₄:Eu.

𝟓𝟑. Which Material is used for smart film?
(A) Indium tin oxide
(B) Zinc chloride
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Silica

Smart film material Smart films (electrochromic or PDLC) require transparent conductive coatings. Indium tin oxide (ITO) is the standard transparent conductor used. Correct Answer is (A) Indium tin oxide.

𝟓𝟒. Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
(A) Platinum
(B) Iron
(C) Chromium
(D) Chlorine

Metal compound for carcinoma treatment Chemotherapy often uses cisplatin, a platinum-based compound, for cancer (including carcinoma). Correct Answer is (A) Platinum.

𝟓𝟓. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Vanlaflexine
(C) Levonorgestrel
(D) Cetrizine

Compound in contraceptive pills Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestogen widely used in birth control pills Correct Answer is (C) Levonorgestrel.

𝟓𝟔. Why oil is not stored in galvanized iron pot?
(A) It produce toxic compound
(B) It reduced quality of oil
(C) Corrosion observed
(D) All of above

Galvanization = coating with zinc. Oils can react with zinc → toxic compounds, spoil quality, and cause corrosion. So, all reasons are valid Correct Answer is (D) All of above.

𝟓𝟕. Which compound is used for increase of octane rating?
(A) Trimethyl hexane
(B) Tetraethyllead
(C) Tetramethyl Oxide
(D) Triethyl toluene

Historically, Tetraethyllead (TEL) was added to petrol to increase octane number and prevent knocking. Although now phased out due to toxicity, it’s the correct answer. Correct Answer is (B) Tetraethyllead.

𝟓𝟖. Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer:
(A) Polyhydroxy butyl vaniline
(B) Poly (3 Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)
(C) Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid
(D) Poly hydroxy butyric acid veratric acid

HPHBV is a biodegradable polymer used as a substitute for plastics. Correct expansion: Poly (3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate).. Correct Answer is (B) Poly (3 Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate).

𝟓𝟗. Hormones are secreted by:
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Exocrine glands
(C) Reproductive glands
(D) Endocrine glands

Hormones are secreted by: Sebaceous glands → Exocrine glands secreting oily sebum onto skin/hair, not hormones. Exocrine glands → Secrete enzymes, mucus, sweat, saliva, etc., through ducts; not hormones. Reproductive glands → They produce gametes, but hormones like estrogen/testosterone come under endocrine function. Endocrine glands → Ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into blood (pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, etc.). Correct Answer is (D) Endocrine glands.

𝟔𝟎. Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
(A) Parasitism
(B) Endosymbiosis
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Endoparasitism

Interaction between herpes simplex virus and human: Parasitism → One benefits, other is harmed (general term). Endosymbiosis → Both benefit (mutualism), e.g., gut bacteria. Symbiosis → Broad term, includes mutualism/commensalism/parasitism. Endoparasitism → Parasite lives inside the host body. Herpes virus lives inside human cells, harming the host → Endoparasitism. Correct Answer is (D) Endoparasitism.

𝟔𝟏. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
(A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgA
(D) IgE

IgG → Most abundant, secondary immune response. IgM → First antibody produced after infection, effective in agglutination. IgA → In mucosal immunity. IgE → In allergic reactions. The first class of immunoglobulin produced by the body during a new infection is Immunoglobulin M (IgM). IgM antibodies rise quickly to provide initial protection by clumping (agglutinating) pathogens like bacteria, allowing other immune cells to be recruited. After this initial response, the body switches to producing Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies, which provide longer-term protection.  . Correct Answer is (B) IgM.

𝟔𝟐. The biological membranes are composed of:

(A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
(B) Lipids only
(C) Proteins only
(D) None of the above

Biological membranes composition:- Membranes are lipid bilayers with embedded proteins (fluid mosaic model). Composition varies with species, cell type, organelle. Not only lipids, not only proteins. . Correct Answer is (A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle.

𝟔𝟑. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?
(A) UAA
(B) UUU
(C) AUG
(D) UGC

Non-sense codon: UAA, UAG, UGA → Stop codons (nonsense). UUU → Codes for phenylalanine. AUG → Start codon (methionine). UGC → Codes for cysteine. Correct Answer is (A) UAA.

𝟔𝟒. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
(A) Vulnerable
(B) Endangered
(C) Rare
(D) Extinct

Species in danger of extinction: Vulnerable → At high risk but not immediate danger. Endangered → Species in imminent danger of extinction. Rare → Low population but not necessarily at risk. Extinct → No living memb. Correct Answer is (B) Endangered.

𝟔𝟓. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Gram
(C) Barley
(D) Wheat

Kharif crop: Sugarcane → Grown throughout year (long duration, tropical). Gram, Barley, Wheat → Rabi crops (winter season). Kharif crops are sown with monsoon (June–July), harvested in Oct–Nov. Sugarcane is considered a Kharif crop (though also annual in nature).. Correct Answer is (A) Sugarcane.

𝟔𝟔. Xylem in plants is responsible for following function:
(A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
(B) Transport of oxygen and other gases
(C) Transport of foods
(D) Transport of essential amino acids

Function of Xylem in plants: Xylem → Conducts water and dissolved minerals from roots to aerial parts. Phloem → Conducts food (sugars, amino acids). Oxygen/gas not transported by xylem.. Correct Answer is (A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals.

𝟔𝟕. Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?
(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bentham and Hooker
(C) AP de Condolle
(D) More than one of the above

Use of vascular tissues in plant classification Carl Linnaeus (1707–1778): Did not use vascular tissue; focused only on floral characters (artificial system). A.P. de Candolle (1778–1841): In his work Théorie élémentaire de la botanique (1813), he first distinguished plants based on the presence or absence of vascular tissues. He divided plants into: Cellular plants (Cryptogams / non-vascular) Vascular plants (Phanerogams) This is considered the first use of vascular tissue as a key criterion in classification. Bentham & Hooker (1862–1883): Used natural morphological characters but did not specifically pioneer the vascular vs. non-vascular distinction. Engler & Prantl (1887–1915): Their system was phylogenetic, arranging plants from simplest (Algae) to most complex (Angiosperms), but by then the vascular vs. non-vascular distinction was already well established. Correct Answer: A.P. de Candolle ✅ Exam Note: A.P. de Candolle was the first botanist to classify plants using vascular tissue as a major criterion, dividing them into Cellular (non-vascular) and Vascular groups. Correct Answer is (C) AP de Condolle.

𝟔𝟖. The part which we eat in Mango is:
(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Endocarp
(D) None of the above

Mango is a drupe fruit with three layers of pericarp: Epicarp → Outer skin (not eaten). Mesocarp → Fleshy, edible part (the pulp). Endocarp → Hard stone enclosing the seed. Thus, the edible portion is mesocarp. Correct Answer is (B) Mesocarp.

𝟔𝟗. Ozone day is celebrated on:
(A) 16th September
(B) 21 April
(C) 5th June
(D) 5th December

The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer was designated by the UN in 1994. It commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol (1987) on ozone-depleting substances. Celebrated every year on 16th September. Correct Answer is (A) 16th September.

𝟕𝟎. In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is:
(A) Protection
(B) Food
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection

In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is: Mycorrhiza = Symbiotic association of fungus + plant roots. Fungus helps in: Increased mineral absorption (especially phosphorus). Protection against soil pathogens. Plant provides carbohydrates (food) to fungus. Thus, main plant benefit = nutrient absorption + disease resistance. Correct Answer is (D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection.

𝟕𝟏. Maginot Line exists between which countries?
(A) U.S.A. & Canada
(B) Namibia and Angola
(C) France & Germany
(D) South Korea & North Korea

The Maginot Line was a defensive fortification built by France in the 1930s. It stretched along France–Germany border to prevent German invasion. Failed in WWII when Germans bypassed it via Belgium.. Correct Answer is (C) France & Germany.

𝟕𝟐. Strait of Hormuz connects –
(A) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
(B) Red sea to Indian Ocean
(C) Red sea to Gulf of Aden
(D) Mediterranean sea to Red sea

Strait of Hormuz connects: One of the world’s most strategic waterways. Connects Persian Gulf → Gulf of Oman → Arabian Sea. Important for global oil transport. Correct Answer is (A) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman.

𝟕𝟑. Where is “Ground Zero“?
(A) Greenwich
(B) Indira Point
(C) New York
(D) Sriharikota

“Ground Zero” refers to the site of the World Trade Center in New York, destroyed during 9/11 terrorist attacks (2001). Now rebuilt with memorials. Correct Answer is (C) New York.

𝟕𝟒. Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the ‘Devil’s Neck‘?
(A) Isthmuses of Panama
(B) Karelian Isthmuses
(C) Kra Isthmuses
(D) Isthmuses of Corinth

The Isthmus of Kra is a narrow land corridor that forms the link between the Malay Peninsula and the mainland of Asia. It represents the shortest land distance between the Andaman Sea on the west and the Gulf of Thailand on the east. Key Details: ● Location: Situated in southern Thailand, within the provinces of Ranong and Chumphon, the isthmus lies close to the border with Myanmar. ● Width: At its narrowest point, it is only about 44–50 kilometers wide, making it a geographically strategic region. ● Nickname – “Devil’s Neck”: Because of its limited width and the difficult maritime routes around the peninsula, sailors have historically referred to the area as the “Devil’s Neck.” Navigating the long detour around the peninsula posed risks for ships, especially before modern navigation. ● Geopolitical and Economic Significance: The Isthmus has often been discussed as a possible site for the construction of a Kra Canal, which, if built, would create a direct maritime shortcut between the Indian Ocean and the South China Sea, bypassing the congested Strait of Malacca. Such a canal could significantly reduce shipping time and fuel costs for global trade routes, though the project has faced political, environmental, and financial challenges. Strategic Importance: Because of its position, the Isthmus of Kra is considered one of Southeast Asia’s most strategically important choke points, often studied in the context of international trade and maritime security. Correct Answer is (C) Kra Isthmuses.

𝟕𝟓. Ladang refers to –
(A) Shifting Agriculture
(B) Subsistence type of Agriculture
(C) Plantation Agriculture
(D) Dry forming

Ladang refers to: “Ladang” = Local term in Indonesia & Malaysia. Refers to Shifting Agriculture (slash-and-burn cultivation). Similar to “Jhum” in Northeast India. Correct Answer is (A) Shifting Agriculture.

𝟕𝟔. Which is the largest river Island in the world?
(A) Srirangam Island
(B) Bhavani Island
(C) Majuli Island
(D) Agatti Island

Largest river island in the world: Majuli Island in Assam (on Brahmaputra river). Recognized as world’s largest river island by Guinness World Records. Famous for Satras (Vaishnavite monasteries). Correct Answer is (C) Majuli Island.

𝟕𝟕. The second largest river basin of India is –
(A) Mahanadi river basin
(B) Godavari river basin
(C) Narmada river basin
(D) Kaveri river basin

The second largest river basin of India is: First largest = Ganga basin. Second largest = Godavari basin (also called Dakshin Ganga). Area ≈ 3.12 lakh sq. km Correct Answer is (B) Godavari river basin.

𝟕𝟖. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
(A) Vishnuprayag
(B) Rudraprayag
(C) Karnaprayag
(D) Devprayag

Confluence of Alaknanda and Bhagirathi: Five Prayags in Uttarakhand: Vishnuprayag → Alaknanda + Dhauliganga Nandaprayag → Alaknanda + Nandakini Karnaprayag → Alaknanda + Pindar Rudraprayag → Alaknanda + Mandakini Devprayag → Alaknanda + Bhagirathi (forms Ganga) Correct Answer is (D) Devprayag.

𝟕𝟗. The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are
(A) Kavaratti and New Moore
(B) Pamban and Barren
(C) Bitra and Kavaratti
(D) Narcondam and Barren

Two volcanic islands in Indian Territory: India has two active volcanic islands in Andaman & Nicobar: Barren Island → Only active volcano in India. Narcondam Island → Dormant volcanic island Correct Answer is (D) Narcondam and Barren.

𝟖𝟎. The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
(A) Sports Goods
(B) Laddoo
(C) Musical Instruments
(D) Scissors

The art of crafting scissors in Meerut has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. These handmade metal scissors have been crafted in the city for centuries, and Meerut is known as India’s only scissor cluster. Correct Answer is (D) Scissors.

𝟖𝟏. In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city?
(A) Shimla
(B) Srinagar
(C) Ranchi
(D) Dehradun

The Temperate Forest Research Centre (TFRC) is one of the centers under the Forest Research Institute (FRI), Dehradun. It is located in Shimla (Himachal Pradesh) and focuses on research related to temperate forest ecosystems, silviculture, and management. Correct Answer is (A) Shimla.

𝟖𝟐. Kanha National Park is established in –
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Maharashtra

Kanha National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh. It was established in 1955 and later became part of Project Tiger (1973). Famous for Barasingha (swamp deer), also known as the “jewel of Kanha.”. Correct Answer is (B) Madhya Pradesh.

𝟖𝟑. ‘Loktak’ is a
(A) Valley
(B) River
(C) Lake
(D) Mountain series

Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, located in Manipur. Famous for phumdis (floating biomass of vegetation and soil). The Keibul Lamjao National Park (last natural habitat of Sangai deer) is located on a phumdi of this lake.. Correct Answer is (C) Lake.

𝟖𝟒. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
(A) Valmiki National Park
(B) Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) None of these

Project Tiger (1973) is a major wildlife conservation initiative. In Bihar, only Valmiki National Park (West Champaran) is included under Project Tiger. Other sanctuaries like Bhimbandh or Udaypur are not included. Correct Answer is (A) Valmiki National Park.

𝟖𝟓. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?
(A) Cow
(B) Buffalo
(C) Bull
(D) Horse

The state animal of Bihar is the Gaur, also known as the Indian Bison, which is locally referred to as a type of bull. It was chosen for its strength and significance in the region’s ecosystem and culture. None of the other options—Cow, Buffalo, or Horse—are designated as Bihar’s state animal. Correct Answer is (C) Bull.

𝟖𝟔. In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?
(A) 2005
(B) 2008
(C) 2007
(D) 2014

Ancient Nalanda University (5th century CE) was one of the oldest universities in the world. It was revived by the Nalanda University Act, 2010. The university was formally re-established in 2014 at Rajgir, Bihar, with support from East Asian countries. Correct Answer is (D) 2014.

𝟖𝟕. Karmanasa river originates in –
(A) Kaimur District
(B) Patna District
(C) Vaishali District
(D) Bikram District

The Karmanasa River rises from the northern slopes of the Kaimur Range near Sarodag in Bihar’s Kaimur district, at an elevation of about 350 metres. From its source, it moves north-west across the Mirzapur plains, then serves as a natural boundary between Bihar and Uttar Pradesh, before merging with the Ganga near Chausa—the historic site of the Battle of Chausa. Correct Answer is (A) Kaimur District.

𝟖𝟖. Bihar produces India _____ % of pyrite of whole India?
(A) 75
(B) 95
(C) 85
(D) 100

Bihar is the principal pyrite-producing state in India. Multiple mineral surveys and competitive-exam reference sources report that Bihar accounts for about 95% of India’s pyrite resources (most deposits occur in the Rohtas/Vidhyan belt and Sone valley). Correct Answer is (B) 95.

𝟖𝟗. Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
(A) Gaya District
(B) Nalanda District
(C) Jamui District
(D) Bhagalpur District

Geological Survey / Ministry data show that primary gold ore resources in Bihar are concentrated in the Sono area of Jamui district (also some resources in Gaya and Nalanda have been reported). Official inventories and PIB releases identify Jamui as the principal district for gold deposits. Correct Answer is (C) Jamui District.

𝟗𝟎. Most of the Bihar comes under which of the following climate
(A) Subtropical Monsoon
(B) Hot and dry
(C) Tropical savannah
(D) Hot and Semi Arid

According to Köppen classification and Indian Met data, the majority of Bihar falls in the humid subtropical / subtropical monsoon climate category (hot summers, wet monsoon, mild–dry winters; classified as Cwa in Köppen). Only some southeastern pockets show tropical savanna traits. Correct Answer is (A) Subtropical Monsoon.

𝟗𝟏. We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden Box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be:
(A) 100 Newtons
(B) 300 Newtons
(C) 200 Newtons
(D) 400 Newtons

When an object moves with constant velocity, net force = 0 (Newton’s 1st law). That means the applied horizontal force is exactly balanced by friction (opposite in direction). Therefore the frictional force equals the applied force in magnitude: 200 N. (“Marginal friction” here means kinetic/friction force opposing motion.). Correct Answer is (C) 200 Newtons.

𝟗𝟐. A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
(A) 11000 Newtons
(B) 13000 Newtons
(C) 12000 Newtons
(D) 14000 Newtons

(400/20)×7. Correct Answer is (D) 14000 Newtons.

𝟗𝟑. Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be:
(A) 9×10⁵
(B) 9×10⁸
(C) 8×10⁶
(D) 10⁵

(250×3.6×10⁶ = 9×10⁸𝐉 Correct Answer is (B) 9×10⁸.

𝟗𝟒. In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
(A) Steel
(B) Air
(C) Water
(D) Hydrogen

Speed of sound increases with the stiffness (elastic modulus) of the medium and generally is highest in solids, lower in liquids, and lowest in gases. Among the given options, steel (a solid) has much higher sound speed (several km/s) than water or air. Therefore sound speed is maximum in steel. Correct Answer is (A) Steel.

𝟗𝟓. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
(A) The principle of conservation of energy is violated
(B) Gravitational force is violated
(C) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
(D) Gravitational force is not violated

As a body falls, its gravitational potential energy (PE) decreases while its kinetic energy (KE) increases. The total mechanical energy (PE + KE) of the system remains constant in absence of non-conservative forces (neglecting air resistance). Hence the decrease in potential energy is exactly converted into kinetic energy: energy conservation is not violated. (So the correct interpretation is that conservation of energy still holds.) Correct Answer is (C) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated.

𝟗𝟔. A pair of Oxen exerts a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:
(A) 1900 Joule
(B) 2100 Joule
(C) 2000 Joule
(D) 2200 Joule

Work done = force × distance (when force and displacement are in same direction). W = 140 N × 15 m = 2100 J. Correct Answer is (B) 2100 Joule.

𝟗𝟕. The focal distance of a plane mirror is
(A) +1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) -1 cm
(D) Infinity

A plane mirror is effectively a spherical mirror of infinite radius of curvature. Focal length for a spherical mirror is f=R/2f=R/2. For a plane mirror R=∞ Correct Answer is (D) Infinity.

𝟗𝟖. Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?
(A) I²R
(B) VI
(C) IR²
(D) V²/R

𝐂𝐨𝐫𝐫𝐞𝐜𝐭 𝐅𝐨𝐫𝐦𝐮𝐥𝐚 𝐚𝐫𝐞: 𝐏 = 𝐈²𝐑 & 𝐕² = 𝐏𝐑 Correct Answer is (C) 𝐈𝐑².

𝟗𝟗. In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit :
(A) Very low
(B) Increases very high
(C) Do not change
(D) Continuously changing

A short circuit implies a very low resistance path across the supply; by Ohm’s law I=V/R, the current increases enormously when R is very small. Hence the current becomes very large. Correct Answer is (B) Increases very high.

𝟏𝟎𝟎. What is the device to protect equipments from the electric shock?
(A) Fuse
(B) Motor
(C) Generator
(D) Current controller

A fuse is a protective device that melts (opens the circuit) under excessive current, thereby protecting electrical equipment from overcurrent/short-circuit damage and reducing risk of shock/fire. (Other devices like RCDs/ELCBs protect against earth leakage specifically, but among the options provided, fuse is correct.) Correct Answer is (A) Fuse.

𝟏𝟎𝟏. In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.
(A) MICROSCOPE
(B) STETHOSCOPE
(C) TELESCOPE
(D) PERISCOPE

Microscope, telescope and periscope are optical instruments that use lenses/prisms to observe distant or small objects. A stethoscope is an acoustic instrument used to listen to internal body sounds. It differs in physical principle (sound vs. light). Correct Answer is (B) STETHOSCOPE.

𝟏𝟎𝟐. SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?
(A) OMEFPA
(B) MPQSUL
(C) OMPGNC
(D) SEGRFT

SPRING → UNUFRC the letter shifts alternate as +2, −2, +3, −3, +4, −4. Applying the same pattern to MOBILE: M (+2) → O O (−2) → M B (+3) → E I (−3) → F L (+4) → P E (−4) → A So MOBILE → OMEFPA Correct Answer is (A) OMEFPA.

𝟏𝟎𝟑. Mukesh said to his friend, “Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter”. How is Mukesh related to Rita?
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Son-in-law
(D) Father-in-law

“My son’s wife’s daughter” is the (typically biological) daughter of the son’s wife — i.e., the son’s daughter; the mother of that girl would usually be the son’s wife herself. If Rita is that mother, Rita is the son’s wife (Mukesh’s daughter-in-law). Therefore Mukesh is Rita’s father-in-law. Correct Answer is (D) Father-in-law.

𝟏𝟎𝟒. Ram goes North, turn right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?
(A) EAST
(B) NORTH
(C) SOUTH
(D) WEST

Start facing North. He turns right → now faces East. Then goes right again (i.e. turns right from East) → now faces South. Then goes to left (i.e. turns left from South) → now faces East. Correct Answer is (A) East.

𝟏𝟎𝟓. Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?
(A) Mahinder
(B) Mohender
(C) Mohinder
(D) Mahendra

Compare the four names lexicographically (dictionary order): Mahendra (Ma-h-e…) Mahinder (Ma-h-i…) Mohender (Mo-h-e…) Mohinder (Mo-h-i…) All starting with “Mah…” come before those starting with “Moh…”. Among the “Moh…” pair, Mohender (…e…) comes before Mohinder (…i…). So the last (greatest) in alphabetical order is Mohinder. Correct Answer is (C) Mohinder.

𝟏𝟎𝟔. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?
(A) 17th
(B) 18th
(C) 15th
(D) 16th

Total students = 39. Joginder is 17th from the last, so his rank from the front = 39−17+1=23rd39 – 17 + 1 = 23rd. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder (i.e. better position), so Nitin’s rank from the front = 23−7=16th23 – 7 = 16th. Correct Answer is (D) 16th.

𝟏𝟎𝟕. If + means ×, × means –,÷ means + and – means ÷, then 175–25÷5+20×3+10 equals to:
(A) 77
(B) 140
(C) 87
(D) 70

The problem statement as given is garbled: “If + means x, x means,+ means + and – means, then 175–25÷5+20×3+10 equals to:” Because the mapping line is unclear/punctuated oddly, there are multiple plausible interpretations of which symbol is to be replaced by which. A common interpretation of such puzzles is: + means × × means + ÷ means − − means ÷ Using that mapping, the original expression 175 − 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 becomes (substituting operators one-by-one): 175 ÷ 25 + 5 × 20 – 3 × 10 Evaluate with normal precedence (×, ÷ before +, −): 175 ÷ 25 = 7 5 × 20 = 100 3 × 10 = 30 So result = 7+100–30= 77. Correct Answer is (A) 77.

𝟏𝟎𝟖. Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year’s time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?
(A) 10,50
(B) 9,45
(C) 9,52
(D) 9,50

Let Rahul’s present age = R. Given: in 4 years Rahul will be 31 → R+4=31⇒R=27R + 4 = 31 \Rightarrow R = 27. Seema is one-third of Rahul → Seema = 27/3=927/3 = 9. “Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago” → Laxmi’s age 4 years ago = 2×(R−4)=2×23=462 \times (R – 4) = 2 \times 23 = 46. So present Laxmi = 46+4=5046 + 4 = 50. So present ages: Seema = 9, Laxmi = 50. Correct Answer is (D) 9,50.

𝟏𝟎𝟗. Find the missing number from the given alternatives:

28	20	7
84	?	12
45	25	9

(A) 30
(B) 20
(C) 35
(D) 25

Missing number in the 3×3 grid Grid: 28 20 7 84 ? 12 45 25 9 Correct Answer is (C) 35.

𝟏𝟏𝟎. RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6 and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?
(A) @$86%7
(B) 86@$#7
(C) %7@%6#
(D) 8@7$%6

From the provided mappings: R → 8 A → $ I → % N → 6 From MORE → 7#8@ gives: M → 7 O → # R → 8 (consistent) E → @ So REMAIN → R E M A I N → 8 @ 7 $ % 6 Correct Answer is (D) 8@7$%6.

𝟏𝟏𝟏. How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above

Bihar players won in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025. I found details about Bihar’s medal tally in the 38th National Games 2025, where Bihar won 5 bronze medals. (1 Gold, 6 Silver and 5 Bronze). Correct Answer is (B) 5.

𝟏𝟏𝟐. Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above

Official government sources (PIB, etc.) confirm that the Kosi Mechi Intra-State Link Project is expected to benefit these districts in Bihar: Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, and Katihar. (Press Information Bureau). Correct Answer is (C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar.

𝟏𝟏𝟑. Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above

Classical Languages of India (as of October 2024) By October 2024, 11 Indian languages have been officially recognized as Classical Languages by the Ministry of Culture. This designation is given to languages with a rich antiquity, extensive body of early literature, and profound cultural heritage. The status provides special academic benefits, including dedicated research funding and the establishment of Centres of Excellence for their study. List of Classical Languages and Year of Declaration: Tamil – 2004 Sanskrit – 2005 Kannada – 2008 Telugu – 2008 Malayalam – 2013 Odia – 2014 Marathi – 2024 Bengali – 2024 Assamese – 2024 Pali – 2024 Prakrit – 2024. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above.

𝟏𝟏𝟒. Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) Bird Life International
(D) More than one of the above

Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs) globally are identified by BirdLife International. Recognition of such sites is done by BirdLife (and its national partners). UNESCO designates World Heritage Sites or Biosphere Reserves, etc., but the IBA program is a BirdLife International (and local bird conservation partner) initiative. I did not find a credible source that lists multiple organisations for Nagi Bird Sanctuary’s IBA status; the standard is BirdLife International. Correct Answer is (C) BirdLife International.

𝟏𝟏𝟓. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?
(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above

National Panchayati Raj Day (NPRD) is celebrated annually on April 24, commemorating the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1993) that constitutionalized Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs). The 2025 (16th NPRD) main event was a national program with PM Narendra Modi addressing Gram Sabhas and PRIs from Lohna Uttar Gram Panchayat, Jhanjharpur Block, Madhubani district, Bihar, in collaboration with the Bihar government. This included conferring Special Category National Panchayat Awards 2025. PIB, Indian Express, AffairsCloud, and Wikipedia confirm Madhubani as the central venue, with nationwide Gram Sabhas. No sources indicate Patna, Gaya, or multiple Bihar locations as primary; events were decentralized, but the flagship was in Madhubani. Correct Answer is (B) Madhubani.

𝟏𝟏𝟔. What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
(A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above

The Lunar Trailblazer mission is a NASA mission whose aim is to map and detect water on the Moon, particularly water in shadows at the lunar poles. Its instruments are designed for remote sensing of water/hydroxyl compounds and to characterize lunar environments. It does not aim to build a full 3D model of the entire Moon nor deploy rovers (based on documented objectives). So the primary objective is to detect and map water on the Moon’s surface. Correct Answer is (A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface.

𝟏𝟏𝟕. Afrikaners indicate the people:
(A) Of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
(B) Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
(C) The white minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above

“Afrikaners” are a white minority ethnic group in South Africa, descended mainly from Dutch, French, and German settlers, speaking Afrikaans. They are not indigenous tribal communities, nor Indo-African descent in the U.S., etc. Correct Answer is (C) The white minority group in South Africa.

𝟏𝟏𝟖. What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?
(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Baoli
(C) Chauki Bavdi
(D) More than one of the above

Recent news reports say that a 16th-century stepwell “Rajon ki Baoli” was conserved by ASI in collaboration with World Monuments Fund India. Agrasen ki Baoli is earlier and in Delhi, not exactly the same project. Chauki Bavdi I did not find credible confirmation for that being the one conserved in 2025 in that collaboration. Correct Answer is (B) Rajon ki Baoli.

𝟏𝟏𝟗. What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above

News reports state that Eric Adams, mayor of New York City, proclaimed April 14, 2025 as “Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day” in the city. Correct Answer is (B) Eric Adams.

𝟏𝟐𝟎. What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
(A) Music Unites Us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United By Music
(D) More than one of the above

The official slogan of the Eurovision Song Contest since 2024 is “United by Music”. Earlier slogans have varied from year to year, but “United by Music” is now the permanent slogan (as adopted recently). Correct Answer is (C) United By Music.

𝟏𝟐𝟏. What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
(A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B) It marked ISRO’s 101″ launch from Sriharikota 2
(C) It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D) More than one of the above

SLV-F15 carried the NVS-02 satellite. (Bihar Sports) It also marked a milestone: It was ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota orbital launch site (since many past GSLV, PSLV and others have launched from there). I need to double-check if it was the 100th or 101st. In news reports, it’s stated that GSLV-F15 was the 100th rocket launch from Sriharikota. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above.

𝟏𝟐𝟐. What is true of the 18 G20 Summit?
(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Its theme was: Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet
(C) The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
(D) None of the above

The 18th G20 Summit took place in New Delhi, India, on 9–10 September 2023, marking the first occasion that India hosted the gathering of G20 leaders. The summit was held under the theme “Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam”, or “One Earth, One Family, One Future.” A key outcome was the adoption of the New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration, reached through consensus. The document highlighted cooperation on a wide range of global challenges, including the Russia–Ukraine conflict, sustainable growth, food and energy security, and the launch of the Global Biofuel Alliance. Correct Answer is (D) None of the above

𝟏𝟐𝟑. The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
(A) Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
(B) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
(C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
(D) More than one of the above

COP29 (29th UNFCCC Conference of Parties), held November 11-22, 2024, in Baku, Azerbaijan (first “Finance COP”), concluded with the New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) on climate finance: developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035 for mitigation/adaptation (up from $100B/year post-2020). It operationalized the loss/damage fund, adopted Paris Agreement Article 6 carbon markets, and advanced Global Goal on Adaptation (GGA) but deadlocked on fossil fuel phase-out/Mitigation Work Programme. No global fossil ban by 2030; $500B not agreed; $300B by 2035 confirmed.. Correct Answer is (C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035.

𝟏𝟐𝟒. Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian‘ won which other prestigious award?
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) Pen America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above

Han Kang, awarded Nobel Prize in Literature 2024, is the author of The Vegetarian. That novel previously won the Man Booker International Prize (which is different from “International Booker Prize” if that term is intended as the same). The term “Pen America Literary Awards” and “Pulitzer Prize” are not associated with The Vegetarian. The exact name is “Man Booker International Prize” (in 2016). The choice “International Booker Prize” might be confusing shorthand but generally, The Vegetarian won the Man Booker International. Correct Answer is (C) International Booker Prize.

𝟏𝟐𝟓. Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?
(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above

Nepal’s Yala Glacier (Langtang Valley, HKH region) was declared “dead” on May 12, 2025, during ICIMOD’s high-altitude ceremony—the first in Asia (third globally after Iceland’s Okjökull 2019, Mexico’s Ayoloco 2021). Shrunk 66% (retreated 784m) since 1970s due to warming (65% faster melt since 2000s), it no longer moves/flows, projected to vanish by 2040. Memorial plaques (English/Nepali/Tibetan) by authors Manjushree Thapa/Andri Snær Magnason note 426 ppm CO2 (May 2025). Correct Answer is (B) Yala Glacier.

𝟏𝟐𝟔. According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above

The UNDP’s 2025 Human Development Report (“A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI”) ranks India 130th (HDI 0.685, up from 0.676/133rd in 2022), in medium category. Life expectancy rose from 58.6 years (1990) to 72 years (2023)—highest ever, reflecting post-pandemic recovery via health investments. Other gains: schooling (mean 6.9→13 expected years), GNI/capita ($2,167→$9,046 PPP). Correct Answer is (A) 72 years.

𝟏𝟐𝟕. In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above

AI Action Summit was held on 10-11 February 2025 at the Grand Palais, Paris, France. Correct Answer is (B) Paris.

𝟏𝟐𝟖. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above

At the 96th Oscars (held in 2024), Emma Stone won Best Actress in a Leading Role for the film Poor Things. She did not win that for La La Land (which was earlier) or The Favourite. (Magsaysay Award Foundation) Correct Answer is (B) Poor Things.

𝟏𝟐𝟗. Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
(A) Hellaro
(B) Chhello Show
(C) Kutch Express
(D) More than one of the above

The 70th National Film Awards, announced on August 16, 2024, and presented on October 8, 2024, honored films from 2022. The Gujarati film Kutch Express, directed by Viral Shah and produced by Soul Sutra LLP, won the Best Feature Film Promoting National, Social, and Environmental Values. This award recognizes its portrayal of cultural identity, personal resilience, and social themes, including women’s empowerment and community bonds in rural Gujarat. Manasi Parekh also won Best Actress for her lead role in the film Correct Answer is (C) Kutch Express.

𝟏𝟑𝟎. Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above

The Ramon Magsaysay Award, Asia’s premier honor often called the “Nobel Prize of Asia,” was established in 1957 by the Rockefeller Brothers Fund to recognize exceptional leadership and service in Asia. For 2024 (announced August 31, 2024, and presented November 2024), five recipients were selected from Bhutan, Japan, Thailand, Vietnam, and Indonesia. These included Karma Phuntsho (Bhutan, for cultural preservation and modern alignment), Hayao Miyazaki (Japan, Studio Ghibli co-founder, for artistic humanism), Rural Doctors Movement (Thailand, for rural healthcare equity), Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong (Vietnam, for disability rights), and Farwiza Farhan (Indonesia, Emergent Leadership for environmental and social justice). The awards, administered by the Ramon Magsaysay Award Foundation (RMAF), emphasize “indomitable spirit” addressing urgent challenges. Official RMAF announcements, Wikipedia, and reports from RVA, Sanskriti IAS, and Manila Bulletin list these exact recipients; no others match the options. Since both Phuntsho, Karma (variant of Karma Phuntsho) and Rural Doctors Movement, along with Miyazaki Hayao, were honored, multiple apply. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above.

𝟏𝟑𝟏. Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
(A) Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army’s Air Defence (AAD) system
(B) It seamlessly integrates India’s larger C4ISR
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation
(D) More than one of the above

Akashteer (meaning “Sky Arrow”) is an indigenous, AI-enabled, fully automated Air Defence Control and Reporting System (ADCRS) developed by Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) in collaboration with DRDO and ISRO, inducted by the Indian Army in 2024 under Project Akashteer (₹1,982 crore contract, March 2023). It integrates surveillance assets like 3D tactical radars, low-level lightweight radars, communication nodes, and command units into a mobile, vehicle-based network for real-time situational awareness, threat detection, tracking, and engagement of aerial threats (drones, missiles, aircraft). Statement is true: It forms the core of the Army Air Defence (AAD) system, enhancing Corps of Army Air Defence capabilities. Statement is true: It seamlessly integrates with India’s broader C4ISR (Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, Reconnaissance) framework, connecting to IAF’s IACCS and Navy’s Trigun for joint operations via the Joint Air Defence Centre (JADC). Statement is true: It enables a strategic shift from passive defense (manual monitoring) to proactive retaliation through automation, decentralized engagement authority, sensor fusion, and quick response, averting friendly fire and handling complex threats (e.g., foiled Pakistani drones in Operation Sindoor, May 2025). Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above.

𝟏𝟑𝟐. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above

Arjun Main Battle Tank is indigenous, developed by DRDO in India. (Magsaysay Award Foundation) ATAGS (Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System) is also developed indigenously in India. (Magsaysay Award Foundation) F-35 Lightning II is a U.S.-made fighter; not part of India’s indigenous system. Thus, more than one (both Arjun MBT and ATAGS) are part of the indigenous ecosystem. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above.

𝟏𝟑𝟑. Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
(A) January 15
(B) January 27
(C) February 10
(D) More than one of the above

Holocaust Memorial Day is globally observed on 27 January, to mark the liberation of Auschwitz-Birkenau. (Magsaysay Award Foundation). Correct Answer is (B) January 27.

𝟏𝟑𝟒. What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
(A) Light of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above

In 2025 the International Booker Prize was awarded to Banu Mushtaq for Heart Lamp. (Magsaysay Award Foundation). Correct Answer is (B) Heart Lamp.

𝟏𝟑𝟓. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Sutlej
(D) More than one of the above

Indus Waters Treaty gives exclusive rights to India over the three eastern rivers: Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. The river Jhelum is one of the western rivers, allocated mostly to Pakistan (though India has certain usage rights under treaty). So Jhelum is not among the eastern rivers. Correct Answer is (A) Jhelum.

𝟏𝟑𝟔. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?
1) CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
2) Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge
3) It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
4) It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above

The Capability Poverty Measure (CPM), introduced by UNDP in the 1990s Human Development Reports (e.g., 1997), extends Amartya Sen’s capability approach beyond income, focusing on deprivations in basic human capabilities for developing countries. It complements the Human Development Index (HDI) by measuring “human poverty” via three dimensions: health/nourishment, education/knowledge, and access to basic services. Statement 1 is correct: Child malnutrition (underweight children under 5) proxies health/nourishment deprivation (~30-33% weight). Statement 2 is correct: Female illiteracy rate (>15 years) reflects education/knowledge deprivation, emphasizing gender inequality. Statement 3 is incorrect: CPM uses female illiteracy, not male, to highlight women’s empowerment gaps; male literacy is in HDI but not CPM’s poverty focus. Statement 4 is correct: Lack of safe water access is a key indicator in the living standards dimension. Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 2.

𝟏𝟑𝟕. Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India’s export during April-September 2024-25?
(A) Petroleum Products
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Basmati Rice
(D) More than one of the above

From Indian trade data for that period, petroleum products, iron & steel are among top export commodities. Basmati Rice is not among the top ten in that specific period (though an important export, it does not figure among the top ten for April-September 2024-25 per trade reports). Correct Answer is (C) Basmati Rice.

𝟏𝟑𝟖. According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
(A) The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
(B) Top three states having largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
(C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
(D) More than one of the above

India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023) published by the Forest Survey of India (FSI), Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change: “The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.” Incorrect. According to ISFR 2023, forest and tree cover together account for 24.62% of India’s geographical area (not 15%). Specifically: Forest cover: 21.71% Tree cover: 2.91% “Top three states having largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.” Incorrect. Recorded Forest Area (RFA) refers to land legally notified as forest, irrespective of canopy cover. The states with the largest RFA are: Madhya Pradesh Arunachal Pradesh Chhattisgarh Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar, and Manipur are not in the top three. “The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.” Correct. ISFR 2023 states that Maharashtra has the highest tree cover in India, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. This matches the official data. Correct Answer is (C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

𝟏𝟑𝟗. Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?
(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above

According to global trade in services data, Ireland has a very high services export share (especially in IT, financial and digital services). India is large but behind Ireland in some segments. Russia and Indonesia do not have greater share than India in global services export. Correct Answer is (B) Ireland.

𝟏𝟒𝟎. Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of Ministry of Health and Family welfare?
(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates
(B) It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts (ABHA) for parents and children.
(C) The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages N
(D) None of the above

The U-WIN (Universal Immunisation Witness) platform of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare is designed to support immunisation delivery and records. Official descriptions and MoHFW/partner documentation state that U-WIN issues QR-based e-vaccination certificates and is integrated to facilitate creation/management of digital health identifiers (ABHA/Ayushman Bharat Health Account) for children and parents where applicable; the portal and allied materials are also available in multiple Indian languages (11 Indian languages on the U-WIN website for guiding both citizens and front-line workers regarding key features and utilization of U-WIN such as registration, appointment booking, national immunization schedule etc.). Source: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Correct Answer is (D) None of the above.

𝟏𝟒𝟏. Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above

The National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) digital blueprint was prepared under the aegis of the Ministry of Housing & Urban Affairs in collaboration with the National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) (NIUA is repeatedly named in official MoHUA/NIUA documentation as the partner/implementing body for the NUIS/Digital Blueprint). While other agencies (MoEIT, line ministries, etc.) participate in urban digital initiatives, the specific joint-development attribution in official releases is to NIUA. (Nudm). Correct Answer is (B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA).

𝟏𝟒𝟐. Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above

The Bharatmala Pariyojana dashboard / government release of project-wise/state-wise progress (official Bharatmala / NHAI/Bharatmala data released to the public) shows the kilometers of road constructed by state up to 31-Oct-2024. Rajasthan had the largest constructed length among states at that cut-off date, ahead of Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra. (Official project progress tables list Rajasthan on top for constructed km as of that date.) (Press Information Bureau). Correct Answer is (A) Rajasthan.

𝟏𝟒𝟑. Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above

Government statements describing the Kisan Rin Portal explicitly say that earlier the manual claim process for Interest Subvention / Prompt Repayment Incentive involved submitting claims to the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and NABARD; the KRP was introduced to streamline and digitalise these claim processes. Official press material and PIB releases identify RBI and NABARD as the earlier recipients of manual claims. (Press Information Bureau). Correct Answer is (B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD.

𝟏𝟒𝟒. India’s foreign exchange reserves:
(A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
(B) Are seventh largest in the world
(C) Decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
(D) More than one of the above

Economic Survey / official data record India’s foreign exchange reserves at around USD 640.3 billion at end-December 2024 (the survey and related releases cite ~USD 640.3 bn). Official commentary around that period described India’s reserves as among the world’s largest (reports cited “fourth-largest”), not “seventh”. India’s current-account position for FY24 showed a CAD of about USD 23.2 billion (close to USD 24 bn) but describing the reserves’ movement as “decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion” is an oversimplification and not how official releases characterised the change (official releases show CAD figures and describe reserve moderation but do not attribute the entire reserve change solely to a BoP deficit of USD 24 bn). Correct Answer is (A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024.

𝟏𝟒𝟓. As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above

The National Multidimensional Poverty Index (NITI Aayog / NFHS-5 based table) lists state/UT headcounts. States/UTs with very low MPI headcounts include Jammu & Kashmir (UT) and Himachal Pradesh, both below 6% in the NFHS-5 (2019–21) based MPI estimates; Uttar Pradesh’s MPI share is much higher. Therefore both Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh recorded <6% multidimensionally poor. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above.

𝟏𝟒𝟔. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
1) Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24
b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI
2) Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries
c) The Lifestyle for Environment ( LIFE) initiative
3) Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy
d) National Clean Air Programme ( NCAP) 4) Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) More than one of the above

PAT (Perform, Achieve and Trade) is the market-based mechanism aimed at improving energy efficiency and reducing emissions in energy-intensive industries — this matches (2). (IEA) MISHTI (Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes) was announced/introduced in the Union Budget 2023-24 as a Budget/Union initiative — matches (1). (Press Information Bureau) LIFE (Lifestyle for Environment) was introduced by the Prime Minister at COP26 (Glasgow, Nov 2021) as an international mass-movement concept — matches (4). (MyGov.in) NCAP (National Clean Air Programme) was launched in 2019 as a national-level time-bound strategy for air quality improvement — matches (3). (Maharashtra Pollution Control Board). Correct Answer is (C) a→2, b→1, c→4, d→3.

𝟏𝟒𝟕. According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
(A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22
(B) Among the 36 states and union territories, 90% states have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (for all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent
(C) The share of female workers in agriculture has decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24
(D) More than one of the above

PLFS 2023-24 documented a noticeable rise in female labour force participation concentrated in rural areas; analyses and official notes show a larger increase in rural female LFPR compared with urban female LFPR since 2021-22 (PLFS highlights a stronger rural rise). (The India Forum) Correct. The claim that “among the 36 states and UTs, 90% states have a WPR below the national average of 43.7%” is not supported directly by the PLFS headline numbers and is a misleading aggregate statement; official PLFS tables do not present that exact 90%/43.7 formulation as a headline finding. (PLFS gives state-wise WPRs but does not summarise them in that particular ratio in the official release.) (Press Information Bureau) PLFS / related analysis indicates that the share of female workers in agriculture has not decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24; in several rural metrics female agricultural participation remained high and in some series rose — i.e., there is no clear PLFS finding that female share in agriculture “decreased significantly.. Correct Answer is (A) There is greater increase in LFPR of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22.

𝟏𝟒𝟖. Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
(A) One nation, one subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission
(D) More than one of the above

STIP-2020 explicitly recommended measures such as “One Nation, One Subscription” (central negotiations for journal subscriptions) and proposed frameworks such as Research & Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF). Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), however, was created earlier (launched in 2016) and is not an outcome of STIP-2020; it predates the 2020 policy. Correct Answer is (C) Atal Innovation Mission.

𝟏𝟒𝟗. Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from 2020-21 to in 2022-23. in
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 27.3%, 30.1%
(C) 35.1%, 38.2%
(D) More than one of the above

Official government data (Ministry of MSME citing MoSPI statistics) record the share of MSME Gross Value Added (GVA) in all-India GDP as about 27.3% in 2020–21 and about 30.1% in 2022–23 — i.e., an increase from ~27.3% to ~30.1%. This matches option (B). (Press Information Bureau). Correct Answer is (B) 27.3%, 30.1%.

𝟏𝟓𝟎. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry?

1) Around 87% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
2) India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
3) Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near to the ports to support exports.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) More than one of the above

Authoritative sector analysis and industry reports indicate a large concentration of India’s cement capacity in a relatively small number of states (the commonly cited figure in industry sources is ~85–87% of capacity concentrated across states such as Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh/Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat, Maharashtra, etc.). Thus statement (1) — high concentration in a few major states (examples: Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh among others) — is essentially correct. (Infomerics) Largest producer claim: India is not the largest producer of cement globally; China is the largest producer and India is the second-largest producer. So (2) is false. (IBEF) Location near ports vs raw material: Cement plants are typically located close to raw material sources (limestone quarries) rather than far from raw materials and near ports — proximity to limestone is a primary factor in siting plants; hence statement (3) is incorrect. Correct Answer is (A) only statement (1) is correct.