71st BPSC Prelims Exam Questions 2025
𝟏. What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
(A) To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas.
(B) To provide vocational training to teachers at senior-secondary level.
(C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
(D) More than one of the above
| Mission Daksh in Bihar is specifically designed to provide personalized mentoring, remedial teaching, and structured support to students who are falling behind in their learning outcomes. The objective is to ensure that such students achieve grade-level competencies, particularly in foundational skills like literacy and numeracy. It is not about enrollment expansion or teacher vocational training. Correct Answer is (C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies. |
𝟐. Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory enablers for support
(C) International market expansion schemes
(D) More than one of the above
| The YUVA framework under Bihar Startup Policy 2022 focuses on: Y: Youth – nurturing entrepreneurial talent. U: Uniform policy and support ecosystem. V: Vibrancy – promoting innovation and education-linked entrepreneurship. A: Assistance – financial and non-financial support, regulatory ease. “International market expansion schemes” is not included as a formal component under this framework. Correct Answer is (C) International market expansion schemes |
𝟑. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24?
(A) Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar’s GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%.
(C) The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above.
| (A) is incorrect → Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices grew by around 14.5% in 2023-24 compared to the previous year. (B) is correct → The tertiary sector share in GSVA (constant prices) was 58.6% in 2023-24, showing Bihar’s service-sector dominance. (C) is correct → GFCF was 4.6% of GSDP in 2023-24, indicating relatively low investment compared to national levels. Correct Answer is (D) More than one of the above |
𝟒. Consider the following statements:
| 1) The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041. |
| 2) Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041. |
| 3) The elderly population (60 + years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India. |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) More than one of the above
| (1) Correct → The young population share (0–19 years) is projected to decline sharply by 2041 due to fertility transition. (2) Correct → Bihar’s demographic dividend will peak around 2041, later than many other states because of its relatively young population base. (3) Incorrect → While the elderly population in Bihar will rise, it will increase less sharply compared to the all-India average (since Bihar remains younger demographically for longer) Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 2 are correct |
𝟓. According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs.
(B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.
(C) Majority of women were engaged in secondary sector
(D) More than one of the above
| PLFS data shows that women in Bihar are overwhelmingly engaged in self-employment, mostly in household enterprises,unpaid work, or agricultural activities. Formal, regular wage jobs (A) are extremely limited among women. Secondary sector (C) also employs very few women in Bihar Correct Answer is (B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises. |
𝟔. The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
(A) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(B) Staff Selection Commission
(C) Union Public Service Commission
(D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the people
| Article 98 of the Constitution provides for a Secretariat of each House of Parliament. Recruitment of its staff is made by the President after consultation with the Speaker (for Lok Sabha) and the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha). Correct Answer is (D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People. |
𝟕. Attorney General of India:
(A) Is not entitled of audience except the Supreme Court
(B) Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament
(C) He gives advice to the President on legal matters
(D) Is a whole time counsel for the government
| The Attorney General of India (AGI) is the highest law officer of the country (Article 76). (A) is wrong → He has the right of audience in all courts in India. (B) is wrong → He can participate in parliamentary proceedings, but cannot vote. (C) is correct → His primary duty is to advise the President on legal matters and perform assigned functions. (D) is wrong → He is not a whole-time government servant; he can practice privately with restrictions. Correct Answer is (C) He gives advice to the President on legal matters. |
𝟖. Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list?
| 1) Protection of wildlife |
| 2) Income on Agriculture |
| 3) Tax on Electricity consumption or sale |
| 4) Price control |
Out of these:
(A) 1 and 4 are correct
(B) Only 4 is correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correet
(D) Only 2 is correct
| Protection of wildlife → Concurrent List (both Centre & States legislate). Income on agriculture → State List (Union cannot tax agricultural income). Tax on electricity consumption or sale → State List. Price control → Concurrent List Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 4 are correct. |
𝟗. Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?
| 1) Organization of Village Panchayats |
| 2) Common Civil Code |
| 3) Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas |
| 4) Right to work |
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) Only 2
(D) 1 and 3
| Gandhian Principles (Art. 40, 43, 46, etc.) focus on Panchayati Raj, cottage industries, prohibition, education, and village economy. (1) Organization of Panchayats → Gandhian. (2) Uniform Civil Code (Art. 44) → Liberal/Intellectual principle, not Gandhian. (3) Promotion of cottage industry → Gandhian. (4) Right to work → Socialist principle. Correct Answer is (B) 2 and 4. |
𝟏𝟎. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Allocation of seats in the council of state — 4th schedule
(B) Administration of scheduled areas —6th schedule
(C) Forms of oath — 3rd schedule
(D) Union List — 7th schedule
| 4th Schedule → Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha ✔️ 5th Schedule → Administration of Scheduled Areas & Tribes ✔️ 6th Schedule → Autonomous councils in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Tripura. 3rd Schedule → Oaths ✔️ 7th Schedule → Union/State/Concurrent Lists. Correct Answer is (B) Administration of scheduled areas —6th schedule. |
𝟏𝟏. Consider the following statements about Central Government:
1) Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.
2) Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Out of these:
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
| Formation of Ministries/Departments is not the PM’s independent decision with Cabinet Secretary → It is done by the President on PM’s advice. So (1) is wrong. Allocation of portfolios is indeed done by President on advice of PM → (2) is correct. Correct Answer is (B) Only 2 is correct. |
𝟏𝟐. What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
(A) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
(B) It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court also
(C) Advocate General has right to vote
(D) Validity of proceedings shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity
| Correct → As per Article 210, State Legislature business can be in official language, Hindi, or English. Wrong → Legislature cannot discuss conduct of judges except in case of impeachment. Wrong → Advocate General can participate but cannot vote. Wrong → Validity of proceedings cannot be questioned for irregularities (Art. 212) Correct Answer is (A) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English. |
𝟏𝟑. The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that :
1) The interest of the general public is safeguarded
2) Prevailing social value and also social needs are not bar
3) Directive principles can be bypassed
4) Collective good is not greater
Out of these:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 4 is correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) Only 1 is correct
| Correct →Restrictions must be reasonable and balance individual rights vs. social interest. (1) True → Interest of general public is main criterion. (2) True → Reasonableness must consider social values and needs. (3) False → Directive Principles are not to be bypassed; they help in interpretation. (4) False → Collective good is often greater than individual interest. Correct Answer is (A) 1 and 2 are correct. |
𝟏𝟒. Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
(A) President of India
(B) Parliament by act
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Union Cabinet
| Article 280: Finance Commission is constituted by President every 5 years. Qualifications of members are determined by Parliament by law. Correct Answer is (B) Parliament by act. |
𝟏𝟓. Consider the following statements:
1) The summoning of the House means convocation
2) Prorogation ends a session
3) Dissolution terminates a House
4) Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone
Out of these which is not true?
(A) 2 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) Only 4
| (1) Correct → Summoning = calling the House. (2) Correct → Prorogation ends a session. (3) Correct → Dissolution ends Lok Sabha (not Rajya Sabha). (4) Wrong → Prorogation is done by President (for Parliament) or Governor (for State), not leader of the House. Correct Answer is (D) Only 4. |
𝟏𝟔. Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) Chairman of District Council
(C) Chairman of Block Committee
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor
| The 73rd Constitutional Amendment (1992) created a three-tier Panchayati Raj system. Article 243-I: A State Finance Commission, constituted by the Governor every 5 years, reviews the financial position of Panchayats and recommends principles for sharing revenues between State and Panchayats. Neither CM, nor District Council, nor Block Committee has this constitutional authority.. Correct Answer is (D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor. |
𝟏𝟕. The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:
1) Enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries
2) Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production
Out of these :
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
| The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan (Self-Reliant India Mission) is aimed at boosting domestic manufacturing, exports, and resilience of industries. It also provides Production Linked Incentives (PLI) to attract foreign investment into domestic production. Correct Answer is (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct. |
𝟏𝟖. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(A) To increase agriculture production
(B) To increase people’s political awareness
(C) To increase employment
(D) To enable people to participate in development administration
| The Panchayati Raj system was introduced to promote grassroots democracy. It enables people to directly participate in decision-making and development administration, not just in elections. Increasing agriculture or employment are indirect outcomes, but not the main constitutional purpose. Correct Answer is (D) To enable people to participate in development administration. |
𝟏𝟗. What is true about Censure Motion?
(A) It is not different from No-confidence motion
(B) It is not mandatory to mention the reasons in this motion
(C) It is different from the No-confidence motion
(D) Permission of the House is not essential to present it
| Censure Motion:- A motion to disapprove a policy or action of the Government. It is different from a No-confidence Motion because it targets a specific policy/minister, not the entire Council of Ministers. In a censure motion, reasons must be mentioned, unlike a no-confidence motion. Hence, the correct feature is that it is different from no-confidence motion. Correct Answer is (C) It is different from the No-confidence motion. |
𝟐𝟎. Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
(A) Dispute between Centre and State
(B) Protection of fundamental rights
(C) Dispute among States
(D) Protection from the violation of the constitution
| Centre–State disputes → Only Supreme Court (Original jurisdiction). Dispute among States → Only Supreme Court. Violation of Constitution (other than FRs) → Generally Supreme Court (e.g., Art. 131). Protection of Fundamental Rights → Both Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Court (Art. 226). Correct Answer is (B) Protection of fundamental rights. |
𝟐𝟏. Which Indian leader for the first time used the ‘safety-valve theory’ to attack the Moderates in the Congress?
(A) Bipin Chandra Pal
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji
| The Safety-valve theory suggested that the Indian National Congress was formed by the British (esp. Hume) as a “safety-valve” to let off nationalist steam and prevent revolution. This idea was popularized by Lala Lajpat Rai, who accused the Moderates of being too soft and serving as a controlled outlet. Tilak and Pal opposed moderates strongly, but the exact phrase “safety-valve” was first used by Lala Lajpat Rai. Correct Answer is (C) Lala Lajpat Rai. |
𝟐𝟐. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Hardinge
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Wavell
| On 23rd December 1912, during the state entry of Lord Hardinge (Viceroy 1910–1916) into Delhi, a bomb was thrown at him by Indian revolutionaries (Rashbehari Bose & Basanta Kumar Biswas were involved). Hardinge was injured but survived; this incident became a major revolutionary event. Correct Answer is (B) Lord Hardinge. |
𝟐𝟑. Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?
(A) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(B) Har Dayal
(C) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
(D) Shyamji Krishna Verma
| Lala Har Dayal, an Indian nationalist and revolutionary, went to the USA and became a Professor of Indian Philosophy at Stanford University (California) in 1911. Later, he played a leading role in organizing the Ghadar Party to mobilize Indians abroad for independence. Other names (Sohan Singh Bhakna, Virendranath Chattopadhyay, Shyamji Krishna Verma) were active revolutionaries, but not linked with this post. Correct Answer is (B) Har Dayal. |
𝟐𝟒. Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?
(A) Dunlop Smith
(B) William Morris
(C) Minto
(D) Theodore Beck
| The Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College, founded by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan, later became Aligarh Muslim University. Theodore Beck (Principal 1883–1899) played a major role in promoting separatist and communal tendencies among Muslims, aligning with colonial policies of “divide and rule.” Dunlop Smith and Morris were officials but not linked with this role; Lord Minto came later (early 20th century).. Correct Answer is (D) Theodore Beck. |
𝟐𝟓. The Young India’, a Nationalist paper, was started by
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Maulana abul kalam azad
| Young India was a nationalist weekly paper associated with Mahatma Gandhi, started in 1919. Gandhi used it to spread ideas of Satyagraha, Non-cooperation, Hindu–Muslim unity, and self-reliance. Annie Besant had started New India. Tilak was linked with Kesari and Mahratta. Abul Kalam Azad had started Al-Hilal. Correct Answer is (C) Mahatma Gandhi. |
𝟐𝟔. Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?
(A) Welby Commission
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Cripps Mission
(D) Cabinet Mission
| Simon Commission (1927) was appointed to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919. It had all British members (no Indian representation), which led to massive protests across India. This united Congress, Muslim League, and other political groups against it → “Simon Go Back” movement. Welby Commission (finance), Cripps Mission (1942), and Cabinet Mission (1946) did include Indians in varying forms. Correct Answer is (B) Simon Commission. |
𝟐𝟕. Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, ‘Chalo Delhi’?
(A) Rash Behari Bose
(B) Shah Nawaz Khan
(C) Mohan Singh
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
| The Indian National Army (INA) was initially formed by Mohan Singh with Japanese support, later reorganized by Rash Behari Bose. But it was Subhash Chandra Bose who took full command in 1943, renamed it the Azad Hind Fauj, and gave the stirring slogan “Chalo Delhi”. Shah Nawaz Khan was an INA commander but not the originator of the cry. Correct Answer is (D) Subhash Chandra Bose. |
𝟐𝟖. “We shall either free India or die in the attempt” who said it?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) V.D. Savarkar
| This line was spoken by Mahatma Gandhi on 8th August 1942, during the launch of the Quit India Movement. It reflected his call for “Do or Die”, urging Indians to either achieve complete independence or sacrifice in the struggle. Nehru and Azad were leaders in the movement, but the specific words are attributed to Gandhi.. Correct Answer is (C) Mahatma Gandhi. |
𝟐𝟗. Who raised the cry “Divide and Quit”?
(A) M.A. Ansari
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) M.A. Jinnah
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
| In 1942, while Congress gave the slogan “Quit India,” the Muslim League under M.A. Jinnah gave the counter-slogan “Divide and Quit”, demanding partition before the British left. This showed the League’s insistence on creating Pakistan. Nehru, Ansari, and Iqbal never used this phrase. Correct Answer is (C) M.A. Jinnah. |
𝟑𝟎. Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions – India and Pakistan?
(A) Govt. of India Act, 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above
| The legal instrument that formally created two separate dominions — India and Pakistan — and set the date for transfer of authority was the Indian Independence Act, 1947. The Act (passed by the UK Parliament) provided for the partition of British India into two dominions, dealt with princely states and with division of assets, and fixed the dates for British withdrawal. Earlier Government of India Acts (1919, 1935) expanded provincial autonomy and reformed administration but did not provide for partition into two independent dominions. Correct Answer is (C) Indian Independence Act, 1947. |
𝟑𝟏. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?
(A) B.G. Tilak
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Annie Besant
(D) M.A.Ansari
| The legal instrument that formally created two separate dominions — India and Pakistan — and set the date for transfer of authority was the Indian Independence Act, 1947. The Act (passed by the UK Parliament) provided for the partition of British India into two dominions, dealt with princely states and with division of assets, and fixed the dates for British withdrawal. Earlier Government of India Acts (1919, 1935) expanded provincial autonomy and reformed administration but did not provide for partition into two independent dominions. Correct Answer is (C) Annie Besant. |
𝟑𝟐. Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between:
(A) Indian Government and Gandhiji
(B) Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
(C) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
(D) Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh
| When Gandhi conducted the Champaran enquiry (1917), the colonial administration — confronted by the evidence Gandhi had gathered — decided to appoint a Government (Lieutenant-Governor’s) Committee of Inquiry to examine agrarian conditions in Champaran. The government invited Gandhi to serve on that committee, and he accepted; thus the committee was constituted by the government with Gandhi’s agreement to participate. The enquiry later led to the Champaran Agrarian Act (1918) and concrete relief measures for the ryots. In short, the Champaran Agrarian/Inquiry Committee was appointed by the provincial authorities and Gandhi agreed to serve on it — i.e., it was appointed with Gandhi’s concurrence. (Indian Culture). Correct Answer is (A) Indian Government and Gandhiji. |
𝟑𝟑. Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
(A) Raj Kumar Shukla
(B) Acharya Narendra Dev
(C) Sahajanand Saraswati
(D) Baba Ram Chandra
| The organised Kisan (peasant) movement in Bihar in the late 1920s and 1930s was built around the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha, founded in 1929. The most prominent leader associated with initiating the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar and later with the All-India Kisan Sabha (formed 1936) was Swami (Shri) Sahajanand Saraswati. He mobilised tenant-farmers against zamindari oppression and was the first president of the All-India Kisan Sabha; historiography of peasant movements in India identifies Sahajanand as the principal Bihar Kisan leader. Correct Answer is (C) Sahajanand Saraswati. |
𝟑𝟒. Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?
(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari
(B) Ram Narain of Bikrampur
(C) Satyandra of Gorakhari
(D) None of the above
| Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari as the person murdered while hoisting the national flag within the jurisdiction of Bikram Police Station. Correct Answer is (A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari. |
𝟑𝟓. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
(A) Anurag Narayan Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishna Singh
(D) None of the above
| Shri Krishna Sinha (Sri Babu) headed Bihar’s first Congress provincial government. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, he became Premier after the 1937 elections, served until the 1939 wartime resignations, resumed leadership post-war, and on independence became Bihar’s first Chief Minister Correct Answer is (C) Shri Krishna Singh. |
𝟑𝟔. Match List I with List II
| List-I Places in Ancient India | List-II Presently in which State |
|---|---|
| a) Karnasuvarna | 1) Maharashtra |
| b) Pragjyotish | 2) Gujarat |
| c) Girnar | 3) West Bengal |
| d) Pratishthan | 4) Assam |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (A) | 4 | 3 | 1 | 2 |
| (B) | 3 | 2 | 4 | 1 |
| (C) | 3 | 4 | 2 | 1 |
| (D) | 4 | 2 | 1 | 3 |
| Karnasuvarna → The capital of King Shashanka (7th century), located in present-day Murshidabad district, West Bengal. Pragjyotish → Ancient name of region corresponding to modern Assam. Girnar → A mountain in present-day Gujarat, famous for Ashokan inscriptions and Junagadh rock edict. Pratishthan (Paithan) → Capital of the Satavahanas, in present-day Maharashtra Correct Answer is (C) a → 3, b → 4, c → 2, d → 1 |
𝟑𝟕. Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?
(A) Ghosha
(B) Apala
(C) Gargi
(D) Vishvavara
| Ghosha, Apala, Vishvavara → Female seers (rishikas) of Rigveda, credited with hymns. Gargi → A woman philosopher of later Vedic age, mentioned in Brihadaranyaka Upanishad (not Rigvedic). Correct Answer is (C) Gargi. |
𝟑𝟖. Match List I with List II
| List-I Event/Place | List-II Connected with Person |
|---|---|
| a) Chola Gangam Lake | 1) Chandragupta Maurya |
| b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra | 2) Harshavardhan |
| c) Assembly at Prayag | 3) Rajendra I |
| d) Sudarshan Lake | 4) Ashoka |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (A) | 3 | 4 | 2 | 1 |
| (B) | 3 | 4 | 1 | 2 |
| (C) | 1 | 4 | 2 | 3 |
| (D) | 2 | 3 | 1 | 4 |
| Chola Gangam Lake → Built by Rajendra I (Chola ruler, after conquest of Ganga region). Appointment of Dharma Mahamatra → By Ashoka to propagate Dhamma. Assembly at Prayag → Great religious assembly organized by Harshavardhana. Sudarshan Lake → Originally Mauryan (Chandragupta), later repaired by Rudradaman, but associated with Chandragupta Maurya.. Correct Answer is (A) 3 4 2 1. |
𝟑𝟗. Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Bahlol Lodi
(C) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(D) Balban
| Alauddin Khilji → 1296–1316 (20 years). Bahlol Lodi → 1451–1489 (38 years). Muhammad bin Tughluq → 1325–1351 (26 years). Balban → 1266–1287 (21 years). Thus, Bahlol Lodi ruled the longest (38 years). Correct Answer is (B) Bahlol Lodi. |
𝟒𝟎. Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India:
1) Shunga
2) Maurya
3) Kushana
4) Kanva
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
(A) 2-1-4-3
(B) 2-3-1-4
(C) 1-2-3-4
(D) 2-1-3-4
| Maurya (322–185 BCE) → First. Shunga (185–73 BCE) → After Mauryas. Kanva (73–28 BCE) → After Shungas. Kushana (1st–3rd century CE) → Later. Correct order: Maurya → Shunga → Kanva → Kushana Correct Answer is (A) 2-1-4-3. |
𝟒𝟏. Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?
(A) Geetavali
(B) Sahitya Lahari
(C) Vinay Patrika
(D) Kavitawali
| Geetavali, Vinay Patrika, Kavitawali → Works of Tulsidas. Sahitya Lahari → Not authored by Tulsidas (different writer). Correct Answer is (B) Sahitya Lahari. |
𝟒𝟐. Match List I with List II
| List-I Building | List-II Built by |
|---|---|
| a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque | 1) Qutb ud-Din Aibak |
| b) Half Din Ka Jhopra | 2) Harshavardhan |
| c) Allahabad Fort | 3) Akbar |
| d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum | 4) Babar |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
| Kabuli Bagh Mosque (Panipat) → Built by Babur after First Battle of Panipat (1526). Adhai Din Ka Jhopra (Ajmer) → Built by Qutb-ud-din Aibak (converted from Sanskrit college). Allahabad Fort → Constructed by Akbar (1583). Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum (Agra) → Built by Nur Jahan for her father Mirza Ghiyas Beg during Jahangir’s reign. Correct Answer is (B) 4 1 3 2. |
𝟒𝟑. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Person Associated with
(A) James Augustus Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle
(B) Ramaswamy Nicker — Justice Party
(C) Dayananda Saraswati — Satyarth Prakash
(D) Jyotirao Phule — Satyashodhak Samaj
| James Augustus Hicky → Known as the founder of India’s first newspaper Hicky’s Bengal Gazette (1780), not Calcutta Chronicle. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) → Associated with Justice Party and later Self-Respect Movement. Dayananda Saraswati → Authored Satyarth Prakash (1875). Jyotirao Phule → Founded Satyashodhak Samaj (1873). Thus, the incorrect match is Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle. Correct Answer is (A) James Augustus Hicky — Calcutta Chronicle. |
𝟒𝟒. Match List I with List II
| List-I Father | List-II Son |
|---|---|
| a) Babar | 1) Salim |
| b) Akbar | 2) Khusrau |
| c) Shah Jahan | 3) Kamran |
| d) Jahangir | 4) Murad |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
| Babar → Father of Humayun and Kamran → match with Kamran (3). Akbar → Father of Salim (later Jahangir) → match with Salim (1). Shah Jahan → Father of Dara Shukoh, Aurangzeb, Shah Shuja, Murad → match with Murad (4). Jahangir (Salim) → Father of Khusrau → match with Khusrau (2). Correct Answer is (C) 3 1 4 2. |
𝟒𝟓. Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?
(A) First
(B) Third
(C) Second
(D) Fourth
| First Buddhist Council (483 BCE) → At Rajgriha (Rajgir, Bihar). Second Council (383 BCE) → At Vaishali (Bihar). Third Council (c. 250 BCE) → At Pataliputra (Patna, Bihar). Fourth Council (72 CE, Kanishka) → At Kundalvana, Kashmir. So, the Fourth Council was not in Bihar. Correct Answer is (D) Fourth. |
𝟒𝟔. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?
1) He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D.
2) He escaped from home internment in January 1941 A.D.
3) On October 21st 1943 A.D. he constituted the Provincial Government of India in Singapore.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 1 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
| Tripuri session of INC (1939, not 1938) → Bose was elected Congress President at Haripura (1938) and again at Tripuri (1939). So, statement 1 is partly wrong (year mentioned is 1938, but session was 1939). He escaped from house arrest in January 1941, disguised and reached abroad → Correct. On 21 October 1943, he proclaimed the Provisional Government of Free India (Azad Hind) in Singapore → Correct. Correct Answer is (C) Only 2 and 3. |
𝟒𝟕. Who among the following was not an Acharya in The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Sheelbhadra
(C) Kautilya
(D) Shantirakshit
| Nagarjuna → Renowned Buddhist philosopher, associated with Mahayana, linked to Nalanda. Sheelbhadra → Buddhist teacher of Nalanda. Shantirakshit → Eminent Buddhist scholar of Nalanda, later invited to Tibet. Kautilya (Chanakya) → Ancient Mauryan minister, long before Nalanda (which was established in 5th century CE). He was not connected with Nalanda. Correct Answer is (C) Kautilya. |
𝟒𝟖. Consider the following events of Modern Indian History –
1) Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
2) Treaty of Salbai
3) Battle of Wandiwash
4) Death of Tipu Sultan
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(A) 2-3-4-1
(B) 2-4-1-3
(C) 3-1-2-4
(D) 3-2-1-4
| Battle of Wandiwash (1760) – English defeated French. Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar (1775) – By Supreme Court under Warren Hastings. Treaty of Salbai (1782) – Between British and Marathas. Death of Tipu Sultan (1799) – Fourth Anglo-Mysore War. Correct order → 3 (1760), 1 (1775), 2 (1782), 4 (1799) Correct Answer is (C) 3-1-2-4. |
𝟒𝟗. Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?
(A) Bihar Bandhu
(B) Akhbar-E-Bihar
(C) Patna Harkara
(D) Bihar Herald
| The Bihar Herald was an English weekly newspaper published from Patna in 1873 by Sachidanand Sinha from Patna. It was founded and edited by Sachidanand Sinha, who later became a prominent nationalist, lawyer, and the first President of the Constituent Assembly of India. The newspaper served as an important medium to spread nationalist ideas, political awareness, and criticism of British policies in Bihar during the late 19th century. Bihar Bandhu → First newspaper published in Bihar (1872) from Patna, started by Girishchandra Ghosh. Akhbar-e-Bihar, Patna Harkara, Bihar Herald → Later publications. Correct Answer is (A) Bihar Bandhu. |
𝟓𝟎. Match List I with List II
| List-I Event/Organisation | List-II Related Person |
|---|---|
| a) Champaran Satyagrah | 1) Jayaprakash Narayan |
| b) Azad Dasta | 2) Shyam Narayan Singh |
| c) Individual Satyagrah in Bihar 1940 | 3) Sahajanand |
| d) Kisan Sabha Bihar | 4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
| Champaran Satyagraha (1917): Gandhi’s first satyagraha in India, but Dr. Rajendra Prasad actively supported and organized it in Bihar → (a → 4). Azad Dasta: During the Quit India Movement (1942), a militant group called Azad Dasta was formed in Bihar under the leadership of Jayaprakash Narayan (JP). So this must be matched with JP, not Shyam Narayan Singh → (b → 1). Individual Satyagraha (1940 in Bihar): In Bihar, Shyam Narayan Singh is especially noted as the first individual satyagrahi → (c → 2). Kisan Sabha (Bihar): Founded in 1929 under Sahajanand Saraswati, a peasant leader → (d → 3). 👉 Correct matching becomes: a – 4, b – 1, c – 2, d – 3. Correct Answer is (D) 4 1 2 3. |
𝟓𝟏. pH value of 0.1NHCl solution is approximately:
(A) 1.0
(B) 10
(C) 11.0
(D) 2.0
| pH value of 0.1N HCl solution HCl is a strong acid, so it ionizes completely. Normality = Molarity for monoprotic acids like HCl. pH = –log[H⁺] = –log(0.1) = 1. Ans.. Correct Answer is (A) 1.0. |
𝟓𝟐. Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
(A) Europium dopped strontium aluminate
(B) Barium sulphate dopped copper carbonate
(C) Copper Sulphide dopped zinc oxide
(D) Boron oxide dopped copper sulphate
| Night glowing pigment The most common long-lasting phosphorescent material is Europium-doped strontium aluminate. It absorbs light energy and releases it slowly, producing glow in the dark. Correct Answer is (A) Europium doped strontium aluminate SrAl₂O₄:Eu. |
𝟓𝟑. Which Material is used for smart film?
(A) Indium tin oxide
(B) Zinc chloride
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Silica
| Smart film material Smart films (electrochromic or PDLC) require transparent conductive coatings. Indium tin oxide (ITO) is the standard transparent conductor used. Correct Answer is (A) Indium tin oxide. |
𝟓𝟒. Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
(A) Platinum
(B) Iron
(C) Chromium
(D) Chlorine
| Metal compound for carcinoma treatment Chemotherapy often uses cisplatin, a platinum-based compound, for cancer (including carcinoma). Correct Answer is (A) Platinum. |
𝟓𝟓. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
(A) Cholecalciferol
(B) Vanlaflexine
(C) Levonorgestrel
(D) Cetrizine
| Compound in contraceptive pills Levonorgestrel is a synthetic progestogen widely used in birth control pills Correct Answer is (C) Levonorgestrel. |
𝟓𝟔. Why oil is not stored in galvanized iron pot?
(A) It produce toxic compound
(B) It reduced quality of oil
(C) Corrosion observed
(D) All of above
| Galvanization = coating with zinc. Oils can react with zinc → toxic compounds, spoil quality, and cause corrosion. So, all reasons are valid Correct Answer is (D) All of above. |
𝟓𝟕. Which compound is used for increase of octane rating?
(A) Trimethyl hexane
(B) Tetraethyllead
(C) Tetramethyl Oxide
(D) Triethyl toluene
| Historically, Tetraethyllead (TEL) was added to petrol to increase octane number and prevent knocking. Although now phased out due to toxicity, it’s the correct answer. Correct Answer is (B) Tetraethyllead. |
𝟓𝟖. Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer:
(A) Polyhydroxy butyl vaniline
(B) Poly (3 Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)
(C) Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid
(D) Poly hydroxy butyric acid veratric acid
| HPHBV is a biodegradable polymer used as a substitute for plastics. Correct expansion: Poly (3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate).. Correct Answer is (B) Poly (3 Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate). |
𝟓𝟗. Hormones are secreted by:
(A) Sebaceous glands
(B) Exocrine glands
(C) Reproductive glands
(D) Endocrine glands
| Hormones are secreted by: Sebaceous glands → Exocrine glands secreting oily sebum onto skin/hair, not hormones. Exocrine glands → Secrete enzymes, mucus, sweat, saliva, etc., through ducts; not hormones. Reproductive glands → They produce gametes, but hormones like estrogen/testosterone come under endocrine function. Endocrine glands → Ductless glands that secrete hormones directly into blood (pituitary, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, etc.). Correct Answer is (D) Endocrine glands. |
𝟔𝟎. Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
(A) Parasitism
(B) Endosymbiosis
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Endoparasitism
| Interaction between herpes simplex virus and human: Parasitism → One benefits, other is harmed (general term). Endosymbiosis → Both benefit (mutualism), e.g., gut bacteria. Symbiosis → Broad term, includes mutualism/commensalism/parasitism. Endoparasitism → Parasite lives inside the host body. Herpes virus lives inside human cells, harming the host → Endoparasitism. Correct Answer is (D) Endoparasitism. |
𝟔𝟏. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
(A) IgG
(B) IgM
(C) IgA
(D) IgE
| IgG → Most abundant, secondary immune response. IgM → First antibody produced after infection, effective in agglutination. IgA → In mucosal immunity. IgE → In allergic reactions. The first class of immunoglobulin produced by the body during a new infection is Immunoglobulin M (IgM). IgM antibodies rise quickly to provide initial protection by clumping (agglutinating) pathogens like bacteria, allowing other immune cells to be recruited. After this initial response, the body switches to producing Immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies, which provide longer-term protection. . Correct Answer is (B) IgM. |
𝟔𝟐. The biological membranes are composed of:
(A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
(B) Lipids only
(C) Proteins only
(D) None of the above
| Biological membranes composition:- Membranes are lipid bilayers with embedded proteins (fluid mosaic model). Composition varies with species, cell type, organelle. Not only lipids, not only proteins. . Correct Answer is (A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle. |
𝟔𝟑. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?
(A) UAA
(B) UUU
(C) AUG
(D) UGC
| Non-sense codon: UAA, UAG, UGA → Stop codons (nonsense). UUU → Codes for phenylalanine. AUG → Start codon (methionine). UGC → Codes for cysteine. Correct Answer is (A) UAA. |
𝟔𝟒. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
(A) Vulnerable
(B) Endangered
(C) Rare
(D) Extinct
| Species in danger of extinction: Vulnerable → At high risk but not immediate danger. Endangered → Species in imminent danger of extinction. Rare → Low population but not necessarily at risk. Extinct → No living memb. Correct Answer is (B) Endangered. |
𝟔𝟓. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Gram
(C) Barley
(D) Wheat
| Kharif crop: Sugarcane → Grown throughout year (long duration, tropical). Gram, Barley, Wheat → Rabi crops (winter season). Kharif crops are sown with monsoon (June–July), harvested in Oct–Nov. Sugarcane is considered a Kharif crop (though also annual in nature).. Correct Answer is (A) Sugarcane. |
𝟔𝟔. Xylem in plants is responsible for following function:
(A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
(B) Transport of oxygen and other gases
(C) Transport of foods
(D) Transport of essential amino acids
| Function of Xylem in plants: Xylem → Conducts water and dissolved minerals from roots to aerial parts. Phloem → Conducts food (sugars, amino acids). Oxygen/gas not transported by xylem.. Correct Answer is (A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals. |
𝟔𝟕. Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?
(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bentham and Hooker
(C) AP de Condolle
(D) More than one of the above
| First to use vascular tissues for classification: Engler & Prantl → Classified plants on evolutionary principles, used vascular tissues (cryptogams vs phanerogams). Bentham & Hooker → Based on natural classification. AP de Candolle → Earlier natural classification, not vascular focus. More than one is wrong because only Engler & Prantl first emphasized vascular tissues as basis. Correct Answer is (A) Engler and Prantl. |
𝟔𝟖. The part which we eat in Mango is:
(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Endocarp
(D) None of the above
| Mango is a drupe fruit with three layers of pericarp: Epicarp → Outer skin (not eaten). Mesocarp → Fleshy, edible part (the pulp). Endocarp → Hard stone enclosing the seed. Thus, the edible portion is mesocarp. Correct Answer is (B) Mesocarp. |
𝟔𝟗. Ozone day is celebrated on:
(A) 16th September
(B) 21 April
(C) 5th June
(D) 5th December
𝟕𝟎. In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is:
(A) Protection
(B) Food
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection
𝟕𝟏. Maginot Line exists between which countries?
(A) U.S.A. & Canada
(B) Namibia and Angola
(C) France & Germany
(D) South Korea & North Korea
𝟕𝟐. Strait of Hormuz connects –
(A) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
(B) Red sea to Indian Ocean
(C) Red sea to Gulf of Aden
(D) Mediterranean sea to Red sea
𝟕𝟑. Where is “Ground Zero“?
(A) Greenwich
(B) Indira Point
(C) New York
(D) Sriharikota
𝟕𝟒. Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the ‘Devil’s Neck‘?
(A) Isthmuses of Panama
(B) Karelian Isthmuses
(C) Kra Isthmuses
(D) Isthmuses of Corinth
𝟕𝟓. Ladang refers to –
(A) Shifting Agriculture
(B) Subsistence type of Agriculture
(C) Plantation Agriculture
(D) Dry forming
𝟕𝟔. Which is the largest river Island in the world?
(A) Srirangam Island
(B) Bhavani Island
(C) Majuli Island
(D) Agatti Island
𝟕𝟕. The second largest river basin of India is –
(A) Mahanadi river basin
(B) Godavari river basin
(C) Narmada river basin
(D) Kaveri river basin
𝟕𝟖. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
(A) Vishnuprayag
(B) Rudraprayag
(C) Karnaprayag
(D) Devprayag
𝟕𝟗. The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are
(A) Kavaratti and New Moore
(B) Pamban and Barren
(C) Bitra and Kavaratti
(D) Narcondam and Barren
𝟖𝟎. The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
(A) Sports Goods
(B) Laddoo
(C) Musical Instruments
(D) Scissors
𝟖𝟏. In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city?
(A) Shimla
(B) Srinagar
(C) Ranchi
(D) Dehradun
𝟖𝟐. Kanha National Park is established in –
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Maharashtra
𝟖𝟑. ‘Loktak’ is a
(A) Valley
(B) River
(C) Lake
(D) Mountain series
𝟖𝟒. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
(A) Valmiki National Park
(B) Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) None of these
𝟖𝟓. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?
(A) Cow
(B) Buffalo
(C) Bull
(D) Horse
𝟖𝟔. In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?
(A) 2005
(B) 2008
(C) 2007
(D) 2014
𝟖𝟕. Karmanasa river originates in –
(A) Kaimur District
(B) Patna District
(C) Vaishali District
(D) Bikram District
𝟖𝟖. Bihar produces India _____ % of pyrite of whole India?
(A) 75
(B) 95
(C) 85
(D) 100
𝟖𝟗. Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
(A) Gaya District
(B) Nalanda District
(C) Jamui District
(D) Bhagalpur District
𝟗𝟎. Most of the Bihar comes under which of the following climate
(A) Subtropical Monsoon
(B) Hot and dry
(C) Tropical savannah
(D) Hot and Semi Arid
𝟗𝟏. We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden Box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be:
(A) 100 Newtons
(B) 300 Newtons
(C) 200 Newtons
(D) 400 Newtons
𝟗𝟐. A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
(A) 11000 Newtons
(B) 13000 Newtons
(C) 12000 Newtons
(D) 14000 Newtons
𝟗𝟑. Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be:
(A) 9×10⁵
(B) 9×10⁸
(C) 8×10⁶
(D) 10⁵
𝟗𝟒. In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
(A) Steel
(B) Air
(C) Water
(D) Hydrogen
𝟗𝟓. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
(A) The principle of conservation of energy is violated
(B) Gravitational force is violated
(C) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
(D) Gravitational force is not violated
𝟗𝟔. A pair of Oxen exerts a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is:
(A) 1900 Joule
(B) 2100 Joule
(C) 2000 Joule
(D) 2200 Joule
𝟗𝟕. The focal distance of a plane mirror is
(A) +1 cm
(B) 2 cm
(C) -1 cm
(D) Infinity
𝟗𝟖. Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?
(A) I²R
(B) VI
(C) IR²
(D) V²/R
𝟗𝟗. In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit :
(A) Very low
(B) Increases very high
(C) Do not change
(D) Continuously changing
𝟏𝟎𝟎. What is the device to protect equipments from the electric shock?
(A) Fuse
(B) Motor
(C) Generator
(D) Current controller
𝟏𝟎𝟏. In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.
(A) MICROSCOPE
(B) STETHOSCOPE
(C) TELESCOPE
(D) PERISCOPE
𝟏𝟎𝟐. SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?
(A) OMEFPA
(B) MPQSUL
(C) OMPGNC
(D) SEGRFT
𝟏𝟎𝟑. Mukesh said to his friend, “Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter”. How is Mukesh related to Rita?
(A) Father
(B) Son
(C) Son-in-law
(D) Father-in-law
𝟏𝟎𝟒. Ram goes North, turn right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?
(A) EAST
(B) NORTH
(C) SOUTH
(D) WEST
𝟏𝟎𝟓. Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?
(A) Mahinder
(B) Mohender
(C) Mohinder
(D) Mahendra
𝟏𝟎𝟔. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?
(A) 17th
(B) 18th
(C) 15th
(D) 16th
𝟏𝟎𝟕. If + means ×, × means –,÷ means + and – means ÷, then 175–25÷5+20×3+10 equals to:
(A) 77
(B) 140
(C) 87
(D) 70
𝟏𝟎𝟖. Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year’s time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?
(A) 10,50
(B) 9,45
(C) 9,52
(D) 9,50
𝟏𝟎𝟗. Find the missing number from the given alternatives:
| 28 | 20 | 7 |
| 84 | ? | 12 |
| 45 | 25 | 9 |
(A) 30
(B) 20
(C) 35
(D) 25
𝟏𝟏𝟎. RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6 and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?
(A) @$86%7
(B) 86@$#7
(C) %7@%6#
(D) 8@7$%6
𝟏𝟏𝟏. How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟐. Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟑. Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟒. Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) Bird Life International
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟓. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?
(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟔. What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
(A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟕. Afrikaners indicate the people:
(A) Of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
(B) Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
(C) The white minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟖. What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?
(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Baoli
(C) Chauki Bavdi
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟏𝟗. What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟎. What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
(A) Music Unites Us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United By Music
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟏. What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
(A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B) It marked ISRO’s 101″ launch from Sriharikota 2
(C) It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟐. What is true of the 18 G20 Summit?
(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Its theme was: Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet
(C) The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
(D) None of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟑. The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
(A) Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
(B) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
(C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟒. Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian‘ won which other prestigious award?
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) Pen America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟓. Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?
(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟔. According to the UNDP Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟕. In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟖. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟐𝟗. Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
(A) Hellaro
(B) Chhello Show
(C) Kutch Express
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟎. Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟏. Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
(A) Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army’s Air Defence (AAD) system
(B) It seamlessly integrates India’s larger C4ISR
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟐. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟑. Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
(A) January 15
(B) January 27
(C) February 10
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟒. What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
(A) Light of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟓. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Sutlej
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟔. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?
1) CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
2) Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge
3) It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
4) It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟕. Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India’s export during April-September 2024-25?
(A) Petroleum Products
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Basmati Rice
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟖. According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):
(A) The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
(B) Top three states having largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
(C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟑𝟗. Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?
(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟎. Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of Ministry of Health and Family welfare?
(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates
(B) It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts (ABHA) for parents and children.
(C) The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages N
(D) None of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟏. Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟐. Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟑. Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟒. India’s foreign exchange reserves:
(A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
(B) Are seventh largest in the world
(C) Decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟓. As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟔. Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
1) Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24
b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI
2) Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries
c) The Lifestyle for Environment ( LIFE) initiative
3) Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy
d) National Clean Air Programme ( NCAP) 4) Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟕. According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
(A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22
(B) Among the 36 states and union territories, 90% states have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (for all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent
(C) The share of female workers in agriculture has decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟖. Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
(A) One nation, one subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟒𝟗. Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from 2020-21 to in 2022-23. in
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 27.3%, 30.1%
(C) 35.1%, 38.2%
(D) More than one of the above
𝟏𝟓𝟎. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry?
1) Around 87% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
2) India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
3) Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near to the ports to support exports.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) More than one of the above